Section 1
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Where can a pilot find the location of airborne/ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?
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Date created
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Section 1
(50 cards)
Where can a pilot find the location of airborne/ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?
A/FD
Portable electronic devices on aircraft
Not allowed, especially on commercial operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR. Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM.
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
Based on: pilot crossing departure end of runway > 35 ft above that elevation, climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn maintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles.
What does "clearance void time" mean?
When operating from non-towered field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes)
What does "cleared as filed" mean?
ATC will issue abbreviated this statement of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan
Recency-of-experience requirements for IFR
a) 6 instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking of courses using navigation aids within the preceding six months. b) 3 take-offs and landings within preceding 90 days (full stop at night) to carry passengers c) Biennial flight review
When must pilot file an IFR flight plan?
Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to preclude delay in receiving departure clearance.
What are preferred routes, and where can they be found?
Routes in high traffic areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FD
*Alternate Airport Requirements*
1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1 hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements: a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approach b) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFR
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller airspace? (5)
a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver capability b) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers c) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability d) Impairment of air/ground communication capability e) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate in IFR
What are important transponder codes to know?
1200 - VFR 7500 - Hijacking 7600 - Communications Failure 7700 - Emergency
Would an incorrect altimeter setting have an effect on Mode C altitude info transmitted by your transponder?
No, since Mode C altitude info is preset to 29.92. Check your own altimeter if controller indicates that altitude readout is invalid.
Discuss transponder operation in the event of a two-way communications failure
Adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600 (pilot should understand that aircraft might not be in area of radar coverage)
What is recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
Climb at Vy (or Vx if necessary) until 1000 feet below. Then 500-1500 fpm until assigned altitude is reached. (If ATC does not use "At Pilot's Discretion" nor impose climb/descent restrictions, pilot should initiate change in altitude immediately upon acknowledgement of clearance).
Aircraft instruments/equipment required for IFR flight
G - generator or alternator of sufficient capacity R - radios for navigation A - altimeter (sensitive) B - ball (for turn coordination) C - clock with sweep-second hand A - attitude indicator R - rate-of-turn coordinator D - directional gyro D - DME / RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment necessary for planned route)
What are ALS, VASI, PAPI, and REIL?
ALS - Approach Light System VASI - Visual Approach Slope Indicator PAPI - Precision Approach Path Indicator REIL - Runway End Identifier Lights
Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?
In general, need Mode C Transponder when: a) At or above 10,000 feet MSL over contiguous US/DC, excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGL b) Within 30 miles of Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL c) Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL d) Within 10 miles of certain airports, excluding that outside Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL e) All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous US ADIZ
When is Instrument Rating required?
a) On IFR Flight Plan b) In Class A Airspace c) In weather conditions less than VFR d) Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas between sunset and sunrise (night)
Before conducting IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what checks should be made?
a) verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for planned IFR b) verify that database is current (not expired) c) review the GPS NOTAM/RAIM information for planned route of flight
Required tests/inspections of aircraft/equipment for IFR flight
A - annual (12 calendar months) A - airworthiness directives complied with V - VOR (30 days) 1 - 100 hour A - altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, static sys. (24 months) T - transponder (24 months) E - ELT (12 months)
Block 7 of flight plan - altitude specified?
Initial altitude, make subsequent requests to controller when in air
Climb gradient of 300 ft/NM at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what rate of climb?
300 * (100/60) = 500 ft/min
What are "area charts"?
Area charts show congested terminal areas such as Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.
What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when filing IFR?
a) radar beacon transponder b) DME equipment c) TACAN-only equipment d) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INS e) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorization
When can you cancel IFR flight plan?
Any time the flight is operated during VFR conditions outside of Class A. Be aware that other procedures may be applicable in area, such as designated TRSA, Class C, or Class B.
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?
NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitations
What are DPs and why are they necessary?
Departure Procedures (DPs) are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.
Documents on board to be legal for IFR
A - airworthiness certificate R - registration certificate R - radio station license (if international operations) O - owner's manual or operating limitations W - weight and balance data
What does "hold for release" mean when included in IFR clearance?
Delays the aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC
What are different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
a) VOR Test Signal (VOT) check; +/- 4 deg b) Ground checkpoint; +/- 4 deg c) Airborne checkpoint; +/- 6 deg d) Dual VOR check; within 4 deg of each other e) Select a radial over a known ground point; +/- 6 deg A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only technician performing test can make an entry in the logbook
How can IFR clearance be obtained?
a) At airport with ATC tower in operation, clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequency b) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area: - Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or over telephone - Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area, say Class B airspace - If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long as you stay in Class E airspace VFR Ask the nearest FSS for appropriate means.
What are fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?
With alternate airport: enough fuel to fly to intended airport (holding pattern included), then to alternate, then for 45 minutes after at cruise speed Without alternate airport: enough to fly to destination airport and land with 45 min fuel remaining
Info a PIC must be familiar with before a flight
All available information, including: a) weather reports and forecasts b) fuel requirements c) alternatives if flight cannot be completed as planned d) known ATC delays e) runaway lengths of intended use f) takeoff and landing distances
Minimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135?
Part 91: None Other Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97): 1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more engines
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log
What are two types of DPs?
a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) - textually/graphically, obstruction clearance via least burdensome route, No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC. b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) - always graphically, obstruction clearance and transition, system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload, ATC clearance must be received prior
Define "ceiling"
Height above Earth's surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial.
Where are DPs located?
Listed by airport in "IFR Take-Off Minimums and Departure Procedures," Section C of the Terminal Procedures Publications
What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?
Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees FROM and 180 degrees TO (remember "Cessna 182" - 180 TO for VOR accuracy checks using a VOT)
How does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?
A "triangle T" or "trouble T" (black triangle with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart. Signifies non-standard take-off minimums.
When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/NM, what significance should this have?
There will be no obstacle departure procedure (ODP) if pilot can turn in any direction from a runway and remain clear of obstacles (satisfies diverse departure criteria). SID may be provided for ATC reasons. Otherwise, the DP was designed with a steeper than normal gradient or specifies departure route for purposes of avoiding obstacles near runway end.
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
C - Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix) R - Route (initial heading) A - Altitude (initial altitude) F - frequency (departure) T - transponder (squawk code) Note: ATC procedures require controller to state the Departure Procedure (DP) within Route info if applicable as well
What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?
Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every 56 days.
What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?
Provide information for navigation above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
Must you accept a SID if assigned one?
No. Since they're only graphical, if the pilot does not have access or does not have equipment to fly the SID, he or she can notify ATC verbally (less preferred) or when filing the flight plan specify "NO SID".
IFR Flight Time Requirements
a) 50 hours cross country as PIC (at least 10 in airplanes) b) 40 hours Instrument (actual or simulated) c) 15 hours instrument dual training from CFI (in same type) d) 3 hours instrument training within 60 days prior to test e) 250 NM cross-country conducted under IFR with 3 different types of approaches
How often is GPS databases required to be updated?
Navigational database is updated Every 28 days, Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days, and terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed Maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
What is "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles)
Requirements of safety pilot
a) Possess a current medical certificate b) Possess a private pilot's license with appropriate category/class ratings c) If flight is conducted on an IFR flight plan, safety pilot must have instrument rating
If instrument currency expires, what can be done to become current again?
Within six months of expiration, complete the requirements (instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking courses) with a safety pilot in simulated IFR conditions only. After that, must get a check with an examiner, authorized instructor, or FAA-approved person.
Section 2
(50 cards)
Describe procedure for crosswind correction in holding pattern
Compensate for wind effects primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments.
What is reverse sensing?
VOR needle indicates reverse of normal operation (fly away from needle to get on course, rather than to needle). Happens when flying inbound on back course or outbound on front course of ILS.
MOCA
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude: ensures obstacle clearance requirements (on routes) & navigational signal coverage within 25 SM (22 NM) of VOR
What is purpose of runway aiming point markings?
Visual aiming point for landing aircraft. Two rectangular markings (broad white stripe, each side of centerline and approximately 1000 ft from landing threshold.
Describe different recommended entry methods for holding
Parallel Teardrop Direct
Can a cruise clearance authorize you to execute an approach at the destination airport?
Yes. ATC may issue cruise clearance that allows you to execute an approach upon arrival at destination airport.
What does operation of rotating beacon at airport during daylight hours mean?
In Class B, C, D, and E surface areas, operation of beacon during daylight indicates below VFR conditions (under 1000 ft ceilings, less than 3 SM visibility). ATC clearance then required to land, takeoff and fly in the traffic pattern.
What are important altitudes to know?
MEA, MOCA, MCA, MRA, MAA, OROCA
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude: lowest altitude at certain fixes at which aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
Full scale deflection - 10 degrees Half scale deflection - 5 degrees Each mark - 2 degrees
How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?
First 3000 feet of runway, beginning at threshold. (Used to determine touchdown zone elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches)
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR, what is procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
VFR: Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed?
Start speed reduction within 3 min or less from fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of change.
What are maximum airspeeds permitted for aircraft while holding?
MHA - 6000 ft --> 200 KIAS 6001 - 14000 ft --> 230 KIAS 14001 ft - and above --> 265 KIAS Note: Holding patterns in middle range may be restricted to max airspeed of 210 KIAS
What does Single-Pilot Resource Management refer to?
SRM refers to effective use of /all/ available resources: human resources, hardware, and information. HR includes dispatchers, weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. SRM is similar to Crew Resource Management.
What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?
a) When leaving FAF inbound on the final (nonprecision) approach, or when leaving the outer marker (corresponding fix) inbound on final (precision) approach b) A corrected estimate at anytime you realize that a previously estimated estimate is more than 3 minutes off
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?
Minimum altitudes are: a) mountainous terrain - at least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from course b) other than mountainous terrain - at least 1000 ft above highest obstacle within horizontal distance of 4 NM from course
If assigned a DME/GPS hold, what procedures should be used?
Same entry and holding procedures, except that distances (NM) are used in lieu of time values. Controller or IAP chart will specify length of outbound leg.
MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude: maximum usable altitude or flight level for route/airspace that ensures adequate reception of navaid signals
What information will ATC provide when they a request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?
a) Direction of holding from the fix (N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, S, NW) b) Holding fix (may be omitted if previously transmitted in clearance limit) c) Radial, course, bearing, airway or route on which the aircraft is to hold d) Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used (specified in minutes on pilot request or if controller considers it necessary) e) Direction of turns if holding pattern is nonstandard (left turns nonstandard) f) Time to expect further clearance (EFC) and any pertinent additional delay information.
What procedure would you use if all communication and navigation equipment failed (complete electrical system failure)?
a) First determine you have complete loss. Determine cause (check circuit breakers, alternator, ammeter, etc) b) Review preflight weather briefing for nearest VFR; determine heading and altitude and proceed to VFR conditions using VFR altitudes c) If VFR conditions are not within range of aircraft, get off airway and determine heading to unpopulated area relatively free of obstacles (rural, large lake, ocean) d) Establish descent on a specific heading to VFR conditions; proceed VFR to nearest airport
Does lack of illumination of RWSL give a pilot permission to enter, cross, or takeoff from runway?
No, RWSL is independent safety enhancement so you still need ATC clearance to do these things.
What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?
a) Fly at appropriate altitude b) Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria c) Comply with IFR rules that are applicable to this flight; i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc
Explain the terms "maintain" and "cruise" as they pertain to IFR altitude assignment
Maintain: maintain last altitude assigned Cruise: assigns a block of airspace to pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including altitude in cruise clearance. Pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude and climb/descent may be made at discretion of pilot. Once descends and verbally reports leaving altitude in the block, may not return to that altitude without additional clearance.
When may the PIC of aircraft deviate from ATC clearance?
Only in case of emergency
On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?
Each and every point used to define that particular route.
Procedure for determining intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?
a) Turn to heading parallel desired course, in same direction as course to be flown b) Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are located c) Double the difference to determine the interception angle which will not be less than 20 degrees nor greater than 90 degrees d) Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course e) Turn to intercept heading f) Hold heading constant until CDI centers g) Turn to the magnetic heading corresponding to selected course, and follow tracking procedures inbound or outbound Note: steps a-c may be omitted if you turn directly to intercept the course without initially turning to parallel the desired course
What is a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern? What are leg lengths of standard holding pattern.
Nonstandard - turns to left Standard - turns to right. Standard leg lengths - 1 minute inbound at or below 14000 ft MSL; 1.5 min inbound above 14000 ft MSL
What is a "clearance limit" and when is it received?
Pilot is cleared to a fix within or just outside destination airport area (not to the actual airport), and needs to wait until receive a long-range clearance direct from center controller
If a thunderstorm is inadvertently encountered, what flight instrument and what procedure should be used to maintain control of the aircraft?
Attitude indicator - establish power for recommended maneuvering speed and attempt to maintain a constant attitude only. Do not attempt to maintain a constant altitude!
What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen?
a) 12,500 - 14,000 ft MSL: crew must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes b) 14,000 ft MSL - 15,000 ft MSL: crew must use supplemental oxygen continuously c) above 15,000 ft MSL: crew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen
Are you required to report unforecast weather encountered enroute?
Yes, must report weather conditions which have not been forecast or hazardous conditions that have been forecast to ATC.
What color are runway edge lights?
White, except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2000 feet/half the runway length (whichever is less) as caution zone
What reports should be made to ATC at all times without a specific request? (10)
a) vacating any previously assigned altitude/FL for newly assigned one b) altitude change will be made if operating on a VFR-On-Top clearance c) when unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm d) When approach has been missed (request clearance for specific action; i.e. to alternate airport, another approach, etc) e) Change in average true speed (at cruise) when it varies by 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight plan f) The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point that pilot is cleared to g) when leaving any assigned holding fix or point h) any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low -frequency navigation receiver capability, GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of ground/air communications capability i) any information relating to the safety of flight j) upon encountering weather or hazardous conditions not forecast
If emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom?
Only if requested by ATC, submitted within 48 hours to manager of that ATC facility
What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation?
VOR navigation is accurate to +/- 1 degree
What cruising altitudes while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (A, B, C, D, E)? In uncontrolled airspace (G)?
Controlled: altitude/flight level that ATC assigns Uncontrolled: a) below 18,000 ft MSL: 0 to 179 deg (magnetic course) - odd thousand MSL; 180 to 359 deg - even thousand MSL b) above 18,000 ft MSL: 0 to 179 deg (magnetic course) - odd flight level; 180 to 359 deg - even flight level
OROCA
Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude: obstruction clearance by 1000 ft in non-mountainous terrain (2000 ft in mountainous terrain). May not provide signal coverage from ground-based navaids, ATC radar, or communications coverage.
What information should be included in every position report?
a) Identification b) Position c) Time d) Altitude/Flight Level e) Type of flight plan f) ETA and name of next reporting point g) Pertinent remarks
MEA
Minimum En-Route Altitude: ensures acceptable navigational signals & obstacle clearance
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in IFR, what is procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
IFR: a) Route A - Assigned...by route assigned in last ATC clearance V - Vectored...go direct from point of radio failure to fix, route, airway in vector clearance E - Expected...by route that ATC has advised may be expected F - Filed...by the route filed in flight plan b) Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown) M - Minimum...minimum altitude for IFR operations E - Expected...altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect in further clearance A - Assigned...altitude/flight level assigned in last ATC clearance c) Leave clearance limit: - when clearance limit is fix from which approach begins (IAF, FAF), commence descent/approach as close as possible to EFC (expect-further-clearance) time if one has been received; if one has not been received, then close to arrive at estimated time of arrival (ETA) - If clearance limit not fix from which approach begins, leave at EFC time (if assigned) otherwise try arriving as close to ETA
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude: lowest altitude at which intersection can be determined
Why is it important for pilot to receive an EFC time with initial holding instructions?
If you lose two-way radio communication, EFC allows you to depart holding fix at a definite time. Plan last lap of holding pattern to leave fix as close as possible to exact time.
Is VFR-On-Top clearance a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances?
Yes it is IFR clearance. Class A prohibits such clearances.
When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern begin?
Begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound is completed.
What colors and color combinations are standard airport rotating beacons?
Lighted land airport - White / Green Lighted sea airport - White / Yellow Military airport - 2 White / Green
What are runway touchdown zone markings?
Identify touchdown zone for landing - provides distance information in 500-ft increments (one, two, three rectangular bars arranged symmetrically in pairs about runway centerline).
What are "unpublished" RNAV routes?
Direct routes based on area navigation capability, between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes.
What is RWSL?
Runway Status Light System - fully automated system that provides runway status to pilots/surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross or takeoff from runway. Two statuses: ON - lights illuminated red, OFF - lights not illuminated
Why would pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?
If in VFR conditions, pilot may want to be able to choose altitude based on reasons like turbulence, favorable winds aloft, etc. Applies also to pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel IFR flight plan or stay on VFR-On-Top Clearance, may request a climb to VFR-On-Top
Section 3
(50 cards)
What are conditions needed for major structural icing to form?
a) Aircraft must fly through visible moisture, such as rain or cloud droplets b) Temperature at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 deg C or colder. Aerodynamics cooling can lower temp of airfoil to 0 deg C even though ambient temp is a few degrees warmer
Class D airspace
Surface up to 2,500 ft MSL surrounding airports with operational control tower. When tower not active, becomes Class E airspace down to 700 ft, below which Class G.
Temporary Flight Restrictions
TFRs protect persons and property in the air or surface from existing or imminent hazard when low-flying aircraft are present that could magnify, alter, spread or compound the hazard. NOTAM will be issued. (e.g. Space flight, sports game, etc)
If icing inadvertently encountered, how would your landing approach procedure be different?
a) Maintain more power during approach b) Maintain higher airspeed c) Expect a higher stall speed (occurs earlier) d) Expect a longer landing roll e) A "no flaps" approach is recommend (avoid stall) f) Maintain a consistently higher altitude than normal g) Avoid a missed approach (get it right the first time)
What is an RMI?
Radio magnetic indicator - consists of a rotating compass card, a double-barred bearing indicator, and a single-barred bearing indicator
Restricted area
Need permission from controlling agency if VFR; if IFR expect vectors around or through it. Contains unusual hazards (often invisible)
Describe GPS
Global Positioning System (GPS) is satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in world.
Class C airspace
Surface to 4,000 ft above airport elevation within 5 NM radius. From 5-10 NM out, 1,200 ft to 4,000 ft above airport elevation.
What are the normal usable distances for the various classes of VOR stations?
H-VORs (high altitude) and L-VORs (low altitude) have normal usable distance of 40 NM below 18,000 ft. T-VORs (terminal) are short range facilities which have power output of approximately 50 watts and usable distance of 25 NM at 12,000 ft and below. T-VORs are used primarily for instrument approaches in terminal areas, or or adjacent to airports. Terminal = 1,000 - 12,000 ft AGL....25 NM Low-Altitude = 1,000 - 18,000 ft AGL....40 NM High-altitude = 1,000 - 14,500 ft AGL...40 NM High-altitude = 14,500 - 18,000 ft AGL...100 NM High-altitude = 18,000 - 45,000 ft AGL...130 NM High-altitude = 45,000 - 60,000 ft AGL...100 NM
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix at which a MCA exists
A pilot should initiate the climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed. MCA (transition to higher MEA) is usually indicated when approaching steeply rising terrain, and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised.
Prohibited area
Aircraft flight not allowed
Class G airspace
Uncontrolled, extends from surface up to controlled airspace above (at most 14,500 ft MSL where class E airspace begins)
What is a mileage breakdown point?
Occasionally an "x" will appear at a separated segment of an airway that is not an intersection. The "x" is a mileage breakdown or computer nav fix and indicates a course change
What is a waypoint?
Predetermined geographical position used for navigation. Defined relative to a VORTAC station (bearing/distance) or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
a) Move to altitude with significantly colder temperatures (no moisture) b) Move to altitude with temps that are above freezing c) Fly to area clear of visible moisture d) Change heading and fly to area of known non-icing conditions
National Security Area
NSAs may be temporarily prohibited when necessary (for security/safety), and pilots urged to voluntarily avoid flying through depicted NSA. Defined vertical and lateral dimensions.
What are designated altitudes for the airways in the VOR and L/MF Airway System?
Depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts: go from 1,200 ft AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL. Courses depicted on ELAC charts (airways depicted in black) are magnetic!
What limitations apply when using an NDB for navigation?
Subject to disturbances (lightning, precipitation static, interference from nearby stations) that cause erroneous bearing information
Class B airspace
Surface up to 10,000 ft MSL surrounding nation's busiest airports; upside-down wedding cake. ATC clearance required; VFR operations is "clear of clouds"
For IFR operations off established airways, the "Route of Flight" portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navaids which are no further than what distance from each other?
Below 18,000 ft MSL: 80 NM Between 14,500 ft AGL or 18,00 ft MSL: 200 NM
What is a compass locator?
A radio beacon used in conjunction with an ILS marker beacon
Within what frequency range to VORs operate?
108.0 MHz to 117.975 MHz (VHF band)
LORAN
LOng RAnge Navigation. Determines aircraft position based on measurement of time-difference receipt from two fixed transmitters (like GPS on the ground). RNAV equipment provides useful features.
RNAV
Area Navigation (RNAV) computes airplane position, actual track and ground speed, and provides meaningful info relative to route of flight. These include INS, LORAN, VOR/DME, and GPS systems.
What are lateral limits of low altitude federal airways?
4 NM each side
What are the two types of waypoints found on charts?
Fly-by waypoint (4-pointed star on chart) - enable smoother transition by beginning turn prior to waypoint Fly-over waypoint (4-pointed star in a circle) - denotes a missed approach point, a missed approach holding point, or other specific points in space that must be flown over
What is a changeover point (COP)?
Point along route or airway segment at which changeover in navigational guidance should occur
What is an HSI?
Horizontal situation indicator - combination of two instruments: vertical heading indicator and a VOR/ILS indicator.
Will all VOR stations have capability for providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?
No, only VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME stations can provide distance information to aircraft equipped with DME.
Class E airspace
Controller airspace not A, B, C, or D. Upwards from either surface or designated altitude (700 ft AGL or 1200 ft AGL depending) to controlled airspace above. Used for federal airways, transition areas, etc. Begins at most at 14,500 ft MSL over US. Floor is 700 ft AGL if designated in conjunction with airport with approved IAP; 1,200 ft AGL in conjunction with federal airway.
Can handheld GPS receivers and systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?
No, because: a) RAIM capability - VFR GPS receivers and all handheld units lack RAIM alerting capability. b) Database currency - IFR-approved GPS systems are required to update database; VFR not c) Antenna location - IFR-approved systems take care to maximize antenna availability to satellites, whereas VFR do not (more a matter of convenience) VFR systems may only be used as aid to situational awareness.
What is meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station?
The DME component is operative, but VOR component is inoperative. If no ID is received, facility has been taken off the air for tune-up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
What operational procedure should be used when navigation or approaches are conducted using an NDB?
Since ADF receivers do not incorporate signal flags to warn pilot of wrong bearing information being received, pilot should continuously monitor the NDBs coded identification.
"T" and "Q" routes
Published (blue) RNAV routes. Provide more direct routing for IFR aircraft and enhance system safety and efficiency. T-routes: 1,200 ft AGL to 18,000 ft MSL (not inclusive) Q-routes: 18,000 ft MSL to FL450 inclusive
Which type of precipitation produces most hazardous icing conditions?
Freezing rain
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?
Slant range error will be at a minimum if the aircraft is one or more miles from the facility for each 1,000 ft of altitude above the facility.
When is DME equipment required?
If VOR nav equipment is required for flight at or above FL240 (24,000 ft MSL) then pilot needs DME or appropriate RNAV. If the DME or RNAV fails above this altitude, need to notify ATC immediately and continue operations to next airport of intended landing where repairs or equipment replacement can take place.
Warning area
Permission not required, flight plan advised. Extends from coast 3 NM outwards into domestic or international waters, contains activity that may be hazardous.
When utilizing GPS for IFR navigation, are you required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight?
Yes, GPS-equipped aircraft under IFR must have approved and operational navigational alternate. Active monitoring is not required when GPS receiver uses RAIM for integrity monitoring. Note: aircraft equipped with a WAAS receiver may use WAAS as a primary means of navigation; no additional equipment required.
Alert area
No permission required; IFR cleared through or around; VFR use caution. High volume of pilot training/aerial activity
What are three functional elements of GPS?
a) Space element. Consists of 24 Navstar satellites ("constellation" in six orbital planes (4 per plane) at about 11,000 miles above Earth. At least 5 satellites are in view at all times. b) Control element. Consists of a network of ground-based GPS monitoring, ensuring system accuracy (position/clocks). Currently there are five monitoring stations, three ground antennas, and a master control station c) User element. Antennas and receiver-processors aboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user.
Where can pilot obtain RAIM availability information?
Civilian pilots may obtain GPS RAIM availability information for nonprecision approach procedures by requesting GPS aeronautical information from Automated Flight Service Station during preflight briefings. FAA briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, unless specific time frame is requested by pilot.
Class A airspace
18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600. Within 12 NM of coast overlying waters.
Within what frequency range do NDBs normally operate?
Low-to-medium frequency band - 190 to 535 kHz
What is DME?
Distance measuring equipment. Provides distance and ground speed info when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude. DME operates on ultra-high-frequency spectrum between 960-1215 MHz (distance info is slant-range, not horizontal)
What is the purpose of RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) verifies integrity/usability of the signals received from the GPS constellation. Needs at least 5 satellites in view or 4 satellites and barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect integrity anomaly).
Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyond which a higher MEA exists
The climb may start after passing over the fox
If RAIM capability is lost while conducting your IFR enroute or approach operations, can you continue flight using GPS information?
No, without RAIM capability GPS may no longer be providing required accuracy.
Controller firing areas (CFAs)
Not charted; activities suspended when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout positions see approaching aircraft.
Military Operations area (MOA)
IFR cleared through or around. VFR permission not needed, though caution urged. Separates certain military training activities from traffic.
Section 4
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Standard procedure turn limitations?
a) Turn on depicted side b) Adhere to depicted minimum altitudes c) Complete maneuver within distance specified in profile view d) Maximum speed not greater than 200 knots (IAS)
When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if "cleared for the approach"?
At airport where no IAP, whenever you are cleared to land by ATC. With IAP, whenever the published chart specifies you to descend, usually after passing a fix.
Control of glide slope and airspeed on ILS approach
Airspeed: power (throttle) Glide slope: pitch (attitude)
Legal substitution for inoperative outer marker
compass locator (combo of radio beacon and outer marker)l precision approach radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or NDB fixes authorized in standard instrument approach procedure; or suitable RNAV system in conjunction with SIAP fix
Precision approach (PA)
Instrument approach with both localizer (horizontal guidance) and glide slope (vertical guidance). Examples: PAR, ILS, and GLS
Visual and aural indications when crossing outer, middle, and inner markers of standard ILS
Outer: blue light, dull tone, slow speed - - - - - - Middle: amber light, medium tone, medium speed - . - . - . Inner: white light, high tone, high speed . . . . . .
Visual information for standard ILS
Approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights
Location of glide slope antenna and usable range
Location: between 750-1,250 ft from approach end of runway (down runway), and offset 250-650 ft from it. Usable to distance of 10 NM
"No-gyro" approach
Radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass or directional gyro. Headings not provided by controller; rather controller observes radar track and instructs "turn right/turn left" or "stop turn" as appropriate
Guidance information for standard ILS (horizontal, vertical)
Localizer, Glide Slope
What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach?
Under 14 CFR Part 91, no regulation prohibits the attempt of an approach. However, upon reaching MDA (nonprecision) or DH (precision) need to have minimum flight visibility as published
RNAV STAR
Same as STAR, though only available to aircraft equipped with flight management system (FMS) or GPS. Typically includes fly-by waypoints with some fly-over waypoints.
Sensitivity of CDI tuned to localizer signal versus VOR
Localizer: 2.5 degrees is full deflection left or right VOR: 10 degrees is full deflection left or right Localizer is 4x more sensitive
PAR and ASR approaches
PAR: radar approach in which controller provides highly accurate navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to the pilot (precision) ASR: controller provides accurate navigational guidance in azimuth only (nonprecision)
Location of localizer/transmitter antennae; range of standard localizer
Far end of approach runway; range of 18 NM
Standard IFR separation minimums
Within 40 miles of radar antennae, aircraft are separated by 3 miles; beyond they are separated by 5 miles.
Angular width of localizer signal
3 to 6 degrees, as necessary to provide linear width of 700 ft at runway approach threshold
What procedure is to be used when the clearance "cleared for the visual" is issued?
Pilot must have airport in sight or preceding identified aircraft in sight. Must be authorized and controlled by appropriate ATC facility (tower). Reported weather must be VFR (ceilings greater than 1,000 ft and visibility greater than 3 SM)
Major differences between SDF and LDA approaches?
SDF - Simplified Directional Facility; may or may not be aligned with runway; signal emitted fixed at either 6 or 12 deg; usable off-course indications limited to 35 deg each side of course centerline LDA - Localizer-Type Directional Aid; compares in accuracy to localizer, but not part of complete ILS. LDA course width is 3 or 6 degrees; some LDAs have Glide Slope; course not aligned with runway, but straight-ins when course within 30 degrees of runway; circling minimums published if greater than 30 degrees
Final approach segment
Approach segment between FAF and runway, airport, or missed approach point
Localizer frequency range
108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz at odd tenths (e.g. 108.3)
"Contact approach"
Pilot on IFR flight plan requests to deviate from instrument approach procedure and proceed to destination airport by visual reference to surface. Ground visibility at airport must be at least 1 SM. Pilot must request this specifically.
Changes in airspeed, pitch, altitude when on final and wind shears from headwind to calm or tailwind
Pitch...........................Decrease Required thrust..........Increased, then reduced Vertical speed............Increases, then decreases Airspeed.....................Decreases, then increases Reaction....................Increase power initially, then decrease
Rate of turn for "no-gyro" approach
Standard rate (180 degrees per minute; 3 deg per second) On final: half-standard rate (18 deg per 2 minute; 1.5 deg/s)
Stepdown fix
Permits additional descent within a segment of an IAP by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown
If ATC issues you a STAR, must you accept it?
No, because you need the approved chart. Can specify "No STAR" in remarks section of flight plan, or verbally request ATC.
Nonprecision approach (NPA); Types
Provides course deviation information, but no glidepath deviation information (such as VOR, NDB, or LNAV). Types: VOR, NDB, ASR, SDF, LDA, TACAN, and LOC.
Range information for standard ILS
Marker beacons, DME
Decision Height (DH)
Height at which decision must be made, during ILS, MLS or PAR instrument approach to either continue approach or execute a missed approach
STAR
Standard Terminal Arrival Route - ATC coded IFR arrival route meant to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between IFR en route and approach. Availability found in Terminal Procedures Publication.
Missed approach segment
Approach segment between missed approach point or point of arrival at Decision Height (DH) and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude
Normal glide slope angle for a standard ILS
3 degrees, such that plane is 200 feet above middle marker and 1,400 feet above outer marker
When is a procedure turn not required?
a) IAP chart says "No PT" b) "Radar Vectoring" is provided c) Holding pattern is published in lieu of PT d) Conducting a timed approach e) Procedure turn is not authorized (absence of PT barb on plan view)
VDP
Visual Descent Point - defined point on final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from MDA to runway touchdown point may be commenced (provided runway or approach lights are identifiable). If not equipped to receive VDP (e.g. DME), proceed as though not VDP provided. Approach charts identify VDP with profile view by "V".
MDA
Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is lowest altitude, expressed in ft MSL, to which descent authorized on final or during circle-to-land maneuvering (where no glide slope is provided)
Will SIAPs always have a final approach fix (FAF)?
No, when a FAF is not designated (e.g. on-airport VOR or NDB), a final approach point is designated and is typically where procedure turn intersects final approach course inbound
What regulations require use of specified procedures by all pilots approaching under IFR
14 CFR Part 97
What is the Initial approach segment of an Instrument Approach?
Approach segment between the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and intermediate fix
Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)
Lowest MSL altitude at which aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except at otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. May be lower than MEA or J-route segment. Charts depicting MVA typically only available to controllers, not pilots
Intermediate approach segment
Approach segment between intermediate fix and Final Approach Fix (FAF)
VASI
Visual Approach Slope Indicator, provides a 3 deg visual glide path; safe obstruction clearance within +/- 10 degrees of runway centerline up to 4 NM from threshold
What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn?
Holding pattern will be established over IAF or FAF. Maximum holding airspeeds apply; maneuver is completed when aircraft established on inbound course after executing appropriate entry (teardrop, parallel, direct); additional circuits not required though if pilot chooses to do so (to lose altitude, for example) then should advise ATC
VDA
Vertical Descent Angle - nonprecision approach feature describes computed path from FAF and altitude to runway threshold at published Threshold Crossing Height (TCH). Optimum is 3.00 degrees. Provides means for pilot to establish stabilized descent from FAF or stepdown fix to TCH.
Distances from landing threshold to outer, middle and inner markers
Outer: 4 to 7 NM Middle: 3,500 ft Inner: between middle marker and threshold
ASR minimums expressed as DH or MDA?
As MDA because ASR approach is nonprecision (no glide slope)
Changes in airspeed, pitch, and altitude when on final and wind shears from tailwind to calm or headwind
Pitch...........................Increase Required thrust..........Reduced, then increased Vertical speed............Decreases, then increases Airspeed.....................Increases, then decreases Reaction....................Reduce power initially, then increase
What conditions are required for instrument approach procedure to have "straight-in" minimums published?
Final approach course needs to be within 30 degrees of runway alignment (15 deg for GPS IAPs) and a normal descent can be made from IFR altitude shown on IAP to runway surface.
When can pilot descend below MDA or DH?
a) aircraft continuously in position from which descent to landing on intended runway possible with normal rate and maneuvers b) flight visibility not less than those prescribed in standard instrument approach procedure being used c) at least one of the following visual references is visible and identifiable: - approach light system (ALS), but not able to descend below 100 ft unless red terminating bars or red side row bars are visible - threshold - threshold markings - threshold lights - REIL - VASI - touchdown zone markings - touchdown zone lights - runway and runway markings - runway lights
Feeder routes
Routes on IAP charts that designate courses, distance, and minimum altitude to proceed from enroute structure to IAF. Meets obstacle clearance requirements (1000 ft in nonmountainous terrain; 2000 ft in mountainous area)
When is inner marker used?
When there is a Category II ILS; usually only an Outer Marker (blue) and Middle Marker (amber)
Section 5
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APV
Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV) is a new class of approach procedures that provides vertical guidance, but does not meet ICAO Annex 10 for precision approaches. Sometimes needs supplementation with barometric vertical navigation (Baro-VNAV)
What is a GPS stand-alone approach?
Consists of a sequence of waypoints defining the point-to-point track to be flown, including the initial approach, intermediate, final approach, missed approach, missed approach turning, and missed approach holding waypoints. All except missed approach at runway threshold are labeled with five-letter alpha character name.
How can you determine if your aircraft is equipped to fly an LPV approach procedure?
Receivers capable of flying LP but have statement in Flight Manual Supplement or Approved Supplemental Flight Manual stating that receiver has LP capability as well as capability for other WAAS and GPS approach procedures
When landing at an airport with operating control tower following an IFR flight, must the pilot call FSS to close the flight plan?
No, the flight plan will automatically be closed upon landing
What does "Cleared for the Option" mean?
Permits pilot to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. Pilot should make request for procedure passing the FAF inbound on an instrument approach
What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?
Must have been flying with reference solely to the instruments, under actual or simulated flight conditions
Do all SIAPs have FAFs?
No, some NPAs may not have FAF and usually have NAVAID upon which approach based located at airport
What is a TAA with regard to GPS approaches?
Terminal Arrival Area provides a NoPT for aircraft using approach (transition from enroute to approach) and has three standard area: straight-in, left base, and right base. (The T on the GPS approach)
Where does the final approach segment begin for the ILS 16L approach?
On all precision approaches (PAs), the final approach segment begins when glide slope is intercepted at glide slope altitude. For nonprecision approaches (NPAs), such as straight-in LOC 16L, final approach segment begins at Maltese cross (*) which is MUFIN LOM.
WAAS
Wide-Area Augmentation System is satellite navigation that augments GPS Standard Positioning Service (SPS); provides enhanced integrity, accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above GPS SPS.
What is the GPS overlay program?
GPS Approach Overlay Program is authorization for pilots to use GPS avionic under IFR for flying designated NPAs, except LOC, LDA and SDF.
If a particular approach name has a letter "A" attached as a suffix (such as VOR DME A), what does this indicate?
Letter after the approach name indicates that approach does not meet straight-in criteria and only circling minimums are available
While circling to land you lose visual contact with the runway environment. You're close to base leg at the circling MDA. What should you do?
Climbing turn towards runway and continue until established on missed approach course. Will ensure you are within circling and missed approach obstacle clearance areas
General characteristics of air flow around high and low pressure systems in Northern hemisphere
Low pressure - inward, upward, counterclockwise High pressure - outward, downward, clockwise
What are frequencies for locator outer marker and middle marker beacons?
Locator frequency: 365 kHz (specific case) All marker beacons transmit on frequency of 75 MHz
Where is the MAP on a precision approach?
For the ILS, the MAP is at the decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH)
What significance does a black triangle with a white "A" appearing in the Notes section of an approach chart, have to a pilot?
Indicates nonstandard IFR alternate minimums for the airport. If an "NA" appears after the "A", alternate minimums are not authorized. Info found at beginning of TPP.
When can RNAV equipment be used as a substitute means of navigation guidance? (AIM 1-2-3)
a) Determine aircraft position over or distance from a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, DME fix; or a named fix defined by a VOR radial, TACAN course, NDB bearing, or compass locator bearing intersecting a VOR or localizer course, b) Navigate to or from a VOR, TACAN, NDB, or compass locator, c) Hold over a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, or DME fix, d) Fly an arc based upon DME [Note: these operations allowable even when a facility is explicitly identified as required on a procedure (e.g., "Note ADF required"). Also, these operations do not include navigation on localizer-based courses.
What is the significance of the term "radar required" found on some approach charts?
On charts/plates and in FDC NOTAMs - alert pilots that segments of instrument approach procedure or route are not navigable because of absence or unusability of a NAVAID. Pilot can expect radar navigational guidance.
You are operating on an IFR flight airport without operating control tower, and have forgotten to close flight plan after landing. Discuss effect on ATC.
Airspace surrounding that airport cannot be released for use by other IFR aircraft until your flight status has been determined
Rate atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude
1"Hg per 1000 ft
What conditions needed to log "actual" instrument flight time?
FAA has never defined the term "actual" instrument time. 14 CFR Part 61 defined "instrument flight time", and reasonable to think "actual" refers to controlling aircraft solely with reference to instrument in actual IMC (below VFR minimums of 1000 ft ceilings, 3 SM visibility)
Standard temperature and pressure at sea level
15 deg C, 29.92"Hg
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?
Category A: 1.3-mile radius Category B: 1.5-mile radius Category C: 1.7-mile radius Category D: 2.3-mile radius Category E: 4.5-mile radius
Why do certain airports have only circling minimums published?
The straight-in minimums not published because the final approach course is more than 30 degrees off runway centerline (or 15 degrees for GPS IAPs), so circling minimum applies
When flying a GPS approach, is it necessary to monitor ground-based NAVAIDs as a backup to the GPS equipment?
No, those avionics for other ground-based NAVAIDs are not required to be installed, operational, turned on or monitored.
Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an approach procedure having only circling minimums?
Yes, the fact that a straight-in minimum is not published not preclude pilots from landing straight-in, if they have the active runway in sight and sufficient time to make a normal approach to landing. Pilots then not expected to circle as long as ATC approved them.
When can you begin your descent to the runway during a circling approach?
Three conditions before descent from the MDA can occur: 1) Aircraft is in position to land using normal rate of descent and normal maneuvers 2) Flight visibility meets minimums 3) At least one of the specific runway visual references is visible and identifiable
When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of guidance exist for a runway, how will they be designated in the approach title?
Letter suffix is added to title of approach; starting with Z and in reverse alphabetical order; generally approach Z will have lower minimums than approach Y. Example: RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 13C and RNAV (RNP) Y RWY 13C at MDW (Chicago Midway)
If glide slope becomes inoperative, could you continue your ILS approach if established on localizer at time of malfunction? Why?
Yes, as long as notify ATC that it is now a LOC-only approach and your DH/DA becomes MDA and the approach is now a nonprecision procedure with MAP being a time or DME point
Approach category minimums for aircraft
Determined by Vref or if not specified, 1.3xVs0 at maximum certificated gross landing weight: A: speed less than 91 knots B: 91 knots to 121 knots (not inclusive) C: 121 to 141 knots (not inclusive) D: 141 to 166 knots (not inclusive) E: 166 knots or more
On an NPA, how is the MAP determined?
a) Timing from the FAF when the approach aid is well away from the airport, b) By a fix or NAVAID when the navigation facility is located on the field, c) By waypoints as defined by GPS or VOR/DME RNAV
If no final approach fix is depicted, how is the MAP determined?
The MAP is at the airport (NAVAID on airport)
What are circle-to-land approaches?
Not technically an approach, but a maneuver initiated by pilot to align aircraft with runway for landing when straight-in landing from SIAP is not possible or desirable. Need ATC authorization and pilot establishment of visual reference to airport.
TCH
Threshold Crossing Altitude - height at which glide slope indicator crosses landing threshold (in planview under GS indicator)
What is recommended action if it becomes necessary to execute a missed approach after passing the MAP on an approach?
Apply procedures used in take-off planning to climb faster and higher to compensate that you did not start climbing at the missed approach point (200 ft/NM). Refer to airport obstacle and departure data in the US Terminal Procedures publication prior to initiating an IAP
Low approach
aka low-pass; go-around maneuver following an approach --> pilot may wish to expedite a particular operation (e.g. practice instrument approaches) so does not actually land or do a touch-and-go
With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?
When flying full procedure: after completing procedure turn and established on final approach inbound course When being radar-vectored: descent within specified distance from NAVAID on inbound course
Under what conditions are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not followed?
When ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions
If, during the execution of an instrument approach procedure, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to full-scale needle deflection, what action is recommended?
Since obstacle clearance for missed approach is based on fact that you are at MAP when you begin execution, before turning to go missed you should fly to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DA/DH before executing the turning maneuver
When must a pilot execute a missed approach? (5)
a) Arrival at missed approach point and runway environment not in sight; b) Arrival at DH on glide slope with runway environment not in sight; c) Anytime pilot determines a safe landing is not possible; d) When circling-to-land visual contact is lost; or e) When instructed by ATC
What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using GPS?
Alternate must have non-GPS approach that will be operational at ETA. If DME/ADF required, aircraft must have backup non-GPS DME.
LPV
Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance (LPV) is type of APV approach, in addition to LNAV/VNAV, which tages advantage of high accuracy and integrity of WAAS. LPV minimums may have decision altitudes as low as 200 ft heigh above touchdown with visibility minimums as low as 1/2 mile.
Is it legal to land a civil aircraft if the actual visibility is below the minimums published on the approach chart?
No, 14 CFR Part 91 states no pilot operating aircraft (except a military aircraft) may land when flight visibility is less than minimums.
What are several types of GPS approach procedures?
a) GPS overlay of pre-existing nonprecision approaches b) VOR/DME based RNAV approaches c) Stand-alone RNAV (GPS) approaches d) RNAV (GPS) approaches with vertical guidance (APV) e) RNAV (GPS) precision approaches (WAAS and LAAS)
Substitutes for outer marker (OM)
Compass locator (365 kHz), 5.3 DME I-FTW, Maverick Vortac (TTT) radial 269
If cleared for a "straight-in VOR-DME 34 approach" can a pilot circle to land, if needed?
Yes, a "straight-in-approach" is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn. Not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in minimums.
What restrictions apply to the use of GPS as a substitute for ADF and/or DME?
GPS database must be current and able to retrieve waypoints, fixes, intersections, and facility locations, otherwise not allowed for substitution.
RNP
Required Navigation Performance. Similar to RNAV (Area Navigation), though differs in that RNP requires on-board monitoring and alerting system.
When logging instrument time, what should be included in each entry?
Include place, type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot
Section 6
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What is a freezing level, and how can you determine it?
Lowest altitude at which air temperature is 0 degrees C. Use icing forecasts and PIREPs to determine approximate freezing level. Area forecasts, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Low-Level Significant Weather Charts are examples of aviation weather products that contain icing information.
Factors necessary for thunderstorm
a) source of lift (heating, fast-moving front) b) moisture (temp and dew point close) c) unstable air (nonstandard lapse rate)
HIWAS
Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories, including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs.
What is a composite flight plan?
It is a flight plan that specifies VFR operation for one portion of a flight and IFR for another.
Sources of weather information
a) Telephone information briefing service (TIBS) (AFSS): 1-800-WX-BRIEF b) Weather and aeronautical info from private industry sources (e.g. Foreflight) c) Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS) d) Transcribed Weather Broadcast in Alaska (TWEB)
When is RAIM check required?
TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipped aircraft: If equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight using current GPS satellite information. TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipped aircraft: Even if equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability does not need to be confirmed provided WAAS coverage is confirmed to be available along the entire route of flight.
What are several methods a pilot can use to satisfy the prediction RAIM requirement?
a) FSS to obtain non-precision approach RAIM b) FAA en route and terminal RAIM prediction website. (www.raimprediction.net) c)Use a third-party interface, incorporating FAA/Volpe Center RAIM prediction data without altering performance values d)Use the receiver's installed RAIM prediction capability to provide non-precision approach RAIM
Cause of winds aloft flowing parallel to isobars? Cause of surface winds flowing across isobars at angle?
Winds aloft: Coriolis force Surface winds: surface friction
When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?
Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 1 hour after the proposed departure time. Th ensure that a flight plan remains active, pilots whose actual departure time will be delayed 1 hour or more beyond their filed departure time are requested to notify ATC of their revised departure time
What instrument approach procedures may you flight plan to use as the planned approach at the required alternate when using WAAS equipment?
Pilots may flight plan to use any instrument approach procedure authorized for use with their WAAS avionics as the planned approach at a required alternate, with certain restrictions.
After filing an IFR flight plan, can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?
Yes, but can present serious hazards worth considering. VFR departure changes the takeoff responsibilities for you and for ATC: a) You are responsible for separation between yourself and other traffic b) You are responsible for maintaining terrain and obstruction clearance as well as remaining in VFR weather conditions. c) Relieves ATC of these duties and basically requires them only to provide safety alerts as workload permits d) If you accept an IFR clearance and are below the minimum IFR altitude for operations in the area, you accept responsibility for terrain/obstruction clearance until you reach that altitude.
Main types of icing that aircraft may encounter
a) structural b) induction system c) instrument
Are Electronic chart systems (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material in the cockpit?
Yes; EFBs can be used durring all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up-to-date, and valid.
How do you determine atmospheric stability?
Stable: temperature does not change much with altitude Unstable: temperature decreases rapidly and uniformly (around 3 degrees C per 1000 ft). When air near surface is warm and moist, suspect instability.
What is the definition of the term "Flight Time"?
"Flight time" means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.
Define Up-slope fog
Moist, stable air cooled adiabatically while moving up sloping terrain (because of wind). Can often be dense and extend to high altitudes (can form under cloudy skies, unlike radiation fog).
Factor that primarily determines type and vertical extent of clouds
Atmospheric stability
Cause of radiation fog
clear sky, little-to-no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity). Fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.
Several types of weather observing programs
a) manual observation - reports made from airport locations staffed by FAA or NWS personnel b) AWOS - automated weather observing system: various sensors, processor, computer-generated voice sub-system, and transmitter to broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data to pilot. c) ASOS/AWSS - automated surface observing system/automated weather sensor system: generates METARs and transmits over discrete VHF radio frequency or voice portion of local NAVAID
Explain the function of RAIM
Receiver Autonomous integrity monitoring is the self monitoring function performed by TSO-129 certified GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received at all times. The GPS alerts the pilot whenever the integrity monitoring determines that the GPS signals do not meet the criteria for safe navigation use.
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?
If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.
How can the use of the "PAVE" checklist during preflight help a pilot to assess and mitigate risk?
Provides pilots with a simple way to remember each category to examine for risk during flight planning. P: Pilot-in-command: illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, emotion (IMSAFE) A: Aircraft: airworthiness, aircraft equipped for flight, proficiency in aircraft, performance capability. V: enVironment: weather hazards, type of terrain, airports/runway to be used, conditions E: External pressures: meetings, people waiting at destination desire to impress, desire to get there, etc.
What are "Squall line" thunderstorms
non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develops ahead of cold front in moist, unstable air. Presents single most intense weather hazard to aircraft; usually forms rapidly during late afternoon.
What restrictions apply to flight planning when using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport?
Flight planning must be based on flying the RNAV (GPS) LNAV or circling minima line, or minima on a GPS approach procedure, or conventional approach procedure with "or GPS" in the title.
What are PIREPs (UA) and where are they usually found?
Pilot weather reports of encountered meteorological phenomena enroute. Required elements: type of report, location, time, flight level, aircraft type and at least one weather element encountered. All altitudes in MSL unless otherwise noted. Visibility distance in SM; all others in NM. Time in UTC. Route PIREPs (UA) and urgent (UAA)
Basic elements of a METAR
a) Type of report - METAR (routine) and SPECI (special observation) b) Station identifier - (ICAO) four-letter station identifier, prefixed with K c) Date and time of report - in UTC d) Modifier (as required) - AUTO means no human intervention e) Wind - five-digit group (six if speed over 99 knots) f) Visibility - statute miles g) Runway visual range (RVR, as required) - follows visibility h) Weather phenomena - qualifiers and weather phenomena i) Sky condition - Amount/Height/Type or Indefinite Ceiling/Height (vertical visibility) j) Temperature/dew point group - temps below 0 are prefixed with an M k) Altimeter - prefixed with an A l) Remarks (RMK, as required) - operational significant weather phenomena, location of phenomena, beginning and ending times, direction of movement Example: METAR KLAX 140651Z AUTO 00000KT 1 SM R35L/4500V6000FT -RA BR BKN030 10/10 A2990 RMK AO2 Runway 35 Left vRVR variable between 4500 and 6000 ft; light rain, mist, broken ceiling 3000 ft
What are radar weather reports?
SD/ROB contains info about precipitation observed by weather radar. Textual product derived from WSR-88D radar without human intervention. Reports transmitted hourly and include: ID, time, configuration (CELL, LN, and ARA), coverage, precipitation type and intensity, location, maximum tops, cell movement, and remarks. Up to 80 min old; only be used if no other radar available.
EFAS
Enroute flight advisory service (122.0 MHz) provides enroute aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to type of flight, route, and altitude. Central collection and distribution for Pilot Reported weather information (PIREPs). EFAS ("Flight Watch") provides communications capabilities from 5000 AGL to 17,500 MSL.
Two ways for fog to form
a) cooling air to dew point b) adding moisture to air
Are all AWOS and ASOS the same?
No. Although similar, there are several versions of AWOS with different arrays of sensors. The report format is similar and is controlled by international standards. Reports differ by the type of sensors on the system (system configuration). A01 indicates an automated station without a precipitation identification sensor. A02 indicates an automated station with a precipitation identification sensor. An AWOS I processes and outputs temperature, dewpoint, barometric pressure, density altitude, wind speed, wind direction, and gusts. An AWOS II adds visibility to the AWOS I parameters. An AWOS III provides cloud height/condition in addition to the above parameters. An AWOSIII-P adds a precipitation type identification sensor. An ASOS includes the parameters of an AWOS III plus a freezing rain sensor and thunderstorm reporting.
Other than Fog, several examples of IFR weather producers
Low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstructions to vision, and precipitation. Fog and low stratus restrict navigation by visual reference more often than all other weather phenomena.
Effects of stable/unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, visibility
Stable: stratiform, smooth, steady, fair to poor visibility Unstable: cumuliform, rough, showery, good visibility
Difference between federal and non-federal AWOS system
The primary difference between federal and non-federal AWOSs is that the federal AWOSs are FAA owned and maintained while the non-federal AWOSs are state or locally owned and maintained. The federal AWOSs also have thunderstorm reporting capability through the FAA's Automated Lightning Detection and Reporting System (ALDARS).
Intensity categories of aircraft structural icing
a) Trace - ice becomes perceptible; deicing/anti-icing equipment not used unless encountered for over 1 hour b) Light - occasional use of deicing/anti-icing to ensure safe flight c) Moderate - short encounters become potentially hazardous; use deicing/anti-icing equipment or divert d) Severe - divert immediately; deicing/anti-icing equipment will not reduce or control hazard
Can a pilot perform the required database updates or must this action be accomplished by an authored maintenance personnel?
Updates of databases of installed avionics may be performed by pilots provided they can be initiated from he flight deck, performed without any disassembly of the avionics unit, and performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment
Define Precipitation-induced fog
Relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from precipitation saturates cool air and forms fog. Commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur in slow-moving cold fronts and stationary front.s Can be quite dense and continue for long time.
Can a GPS with an expired database be used for navigation under IFR?
The navigation database contained in the GPS/FMS must be current if the system us to be used for IFR approaches. However, Refer to AFM or AFM supplement for specifics for installed GPS.
Terminal aerodrome forecasts (TAFs)
Expected meteorological conditions within 5 SM radius from center of airport's runway complex. Same weather code used in METAR: a) Type - routine forecast (TAF) and amended (TAF AMD) b) ICAO station identifier - 4-letter c) Date and time of origin d) Valid period date and time - routine TAFs are valid for 24 hours and issued 4x daily (0000z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z) e) Forecasts - wind, visibility, significant weather, sky condition, nonconvective low-level wind shear, change indicators, probability
Pertinent information from weather briefing
S - synopsis A - adverse conditions C - current conditions r E - enroute forecast D - destination forecast W - winds aloft i N - NOTAMs (notices to airmen) d VFR flight not recommended ATC delay Upon request: information on Special Use Airspace (SUA), related airspace and MTR activity within flight plan area and 100 NM extension around, review of printed NOTAMs, approxiamte density altitude data, info on air traffic services and rules, customs/immigration procedures, ADIZ rules, search and rescue, LORAN-C NOTAMs, available military NOTAMs, and runway friction measurement value NOTAMs, GPS RAIM availability, and other assistance as required
Types of structural ice
a) clear ice - large drops strike aircraft surface, slowly freeze b) rime ice - small drops strike surface, rapidly freeze c) mixed ice - combination of clear and rime, building a rough accumulation
Define Ice fog
Occurs in cold weather when temperature is below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals. Same conditions as radiation frog, though colder (-25 deg C or colder).
Name several types of fog
a) radiation b) advection c) upslope d) precipitation-induced e) ice
In addition to the documentation represented by ARROW, what additional aircraft documentation should be on board an aircraft equipped with an IFR-approved GPS?
Most systems require an Airplane Flight Manual Supplement and Cockpit Reference Guide or Quick Reference Guide to be on board as a limitation of use
Advection fog, and where it usually forms
Forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. Most common along coastal areas; may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time. Deepens as wind speed increases up to 15 knots; stronger winds lift fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus.
Aviation area forecast
(FA) Forecast of visual meteorological conditions (VMC) and general weather conditions over an area the size of several states. Used along with inflight weather advisories to determine forecast enroute weather and interpolate conditions at airports where no TAFs are issued. FAs are issued 3x daily by Aviation Weather Center (AWC) for each of 6 areas in contiguous 48 states.
METAR
Aviation routine weather report (METAR): two types - routine (every hour) and selected special weather report (SPECI) given at any time to update METAR for rapidly changing weather conditions, aircraft mishaps, or other critical info.
Difference between stable and unstable atmosphere
Stable atmosphere resists upward or downward displacement. Unstable atmosphere allows upward or downward disturbance to grow into a vertical or convective current
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition?
The Pilot-in-command
What useful information can be found in the AFD which might be helpful in route planning?
a) Enroute Flight Advisory Services - locations and communication outlets b) ARTCC - locations and sector frequencies c) Aeronautical Chart Bulletins - recent changes after publication d) Preferred IFR routes - high and low altitude e) Special Notices - Flight service station, GADO, Weather Service office phone numbers f) VOR receiver checkpoints - locations and frequencies
How can a pilot determine what type of operations a GPS receiver is approved for?
The pilot should reference the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed.
Section 7
(50 cards)
Where can NOTAM information be obtained?
a) AFSS/FSS b) DUATS c) NTAP printed NOTAMS d) FAA Website
What type of errors is the altimeter subject to?
a) Mechanical Errors - Differences between ambient temp and/or pressure can cause an erroneous indication on the altimeter b) Inherent errors - Non-Standard temp and press -Warmer than standard air: air is less dense and the pressure levels are farther apart. True altitude is higher than indicated. -Colder than Standard air: air is denser and the pressure levels are closer together. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude -Extreme cold altimeter errors: Correction factor needed (10C to -50C) -High Pressure to Low Pressure: true altitude of aircraft will be lower than indicated altitude -Low Pressure to High Pressure: true altitude of the aircraft will be higher than indicated altitude. High to Low or Hot to Cold - Loo our Below!
How does the VSI work?
Rate-of-pressure change instrument that gives an indication from a constant pressure level. Aneroid and instrument case vented to the static system. Case vented through a calibrated orifice. Differential pressure caused by the orifice compresses and expands the aneroid in turn moving the pointer on the face of the instrument.
What is Indicated Altitude?
read directly form the altimeter when set to the current altimeter setting
Maximum allowable error for an altimeter
With the correct pressure setting set in the Kollsman window, the altimeter should read within 75 feet of field elevation
How does the Heading indicator work?
Works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane.
How does the vacuum system operate?
spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds.
Name some of the commonly used power sources for gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft.
-electrical -pneumatic -venturi tube -wet type vacuum pump -dry air pump
What is calibrated Airspeed?
CAS is the speed at which the aircraft is moving through the air, which is found by correcting IAS for instrument and position errors.
What instruments are affected when the pitot tube ram air inlet and drain hole freeze?
Only the airspeed indicator is affected. It will now behave like an altimeter
Limitations of the VSI?
Not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized
What is Density Altitude?
Pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature.
What are the limitations that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
Requires proper flow of air in the pitot/static system
What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
a) Position error- caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure b) Density error - changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for c) Compressibility error - caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeed, resulting in higher than normal indications.
How is the turn coordinator powered?
either air or electricity or dual-powered (both). In our Cessna, electrically powered.
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
ICET I: Indicated Airspeed C: Calibrated Airspeed E: Equivalent Airspeed T: True Airspeed
Explain the following types of NOTAMS: (D) NOTAMS, FDC NOTAMs, Pointer NOTAMs, Military NOTAMs, and SAA NOTAMs.
a) (D) NOTAMS - Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication, regarding enroute navigational aids, civil public-use airports listed int the A/FD, facilities, services, and procedures. b) FDC NOTAMs - Flight information that is regulatory in nature including but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage c) Pointer NOTAMs - issued by a FSS to highlight or point out another NOTAM d) Military NOTAMs - these pertain to U.S. Armed Forces navigational aids/airports e) issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required
What is equivalent Airspeed?
EAS is CAS corrected for compression of air inside the pitot tube
What are the various compass errors?
Oscillation error- Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique Deviation error- Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft Variation error- Angular difference between the true and magnetic north Dip Errors: a) Acceleration error- On E or W headings while accelerating, will show turn north, while decelerating, will show a turn south. Remember: ANDS - Acc North, Dec South b) Northerly turning error- Compass leads turn, stop prior to desired heading c) Southerly turning error- Compass lags behind the turn, stop turn after desired heading Remember: UNOS - Undershoot North Overshoot South
What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?
- Airspeed indicator - accurate at altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the system equals that of outside. Descents will cause high readings, assents will cause low readings - Altimeter - will indicate the altitude at which the static port froze - Vertical Speed - Will indicate Level flight
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
They vary with the particular design and make of the instrument. Rule of thumb: 55 degrees of pitch, 55 degrees of bank. Past these limits, instrument is known to tumble
What is required to be current?
3 T/O and Landings in 90 Days 6SHIT = Within 6 Months: 6 Instrument Approaches, Holding Procedures, Tracking
What limitations does the magnetic compass have
The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float the freedom to rotate and tilt up to approx 18 degrees angle of bank. Pass this, the indications are unreliable.
How does an airspeed indicator work?
Measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source.
What is True Altitude?
the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
(D) NOTAMs will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords?
RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY, (U) OR (O)
What is Indicated Airspeed?
IAS is shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors
What are NOTAMs?
Notices to Airmen- Time critical aeronautical information which is of either a temporary nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System. Could include information such as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of nav aids, ILS's radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal or landing operations.
What is Pressure Altitude?
The vertical Distance of an aircraft above the terrain, or above ground level.
What is Absolute Altitude?
the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain or above ground level.
What is required for Instrument Rating?
50 Hours Cross Country 40 Hours Actual or Sim Instrument Time (15 with Instructor) Cross Country Flight over 250 Nm
What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?
Altimeter, Vertical-Speed Indicator, Airspeed Indicator.
When is an instrument rating required?
Under IFR Flight Plan, Class A, Weather less than VFR, Passengers for hire +50 miles at night
What are the two important characteristics of gyroscopes that are utilized in aircraft instruments? Explain them. Which instruments utilize each characteristic?
Rigidity- the characteristic of a gyro that prevents its axis of rotation from tilting as the Earth Rotates; Utilized in attitude and heading instruments Precession- the characteristic of a gyro that causes an applied force to be felt 90 degrees form the point of application in the direction of rotation; Turn coordinator utilizes this principle
What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time?
Flight time when pilot operates solely by reference to instruments
What type of errors is the heading indicator subject to?
a) Because of precession (friction in instrument) the instrument will creep off of the heading it is set to. b) Because the gyro is oriented in space and earth rotates in space at a rate of 15 degrees per hour, the indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees of error per hour
How does the Altimeter work?
aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.
Which Instruments contain Gyroscopes?
Attitude indicator, Heading Indicator, and Turn coordinator/indicator
How does the attitude indicator work?
The gyro in the heading indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; It remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its later or longitudinal axis.
How does the Magnetic Compass Work?
Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth's lines of magnetic force
What are the limitation of an attitude indicator?
Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Rule of thumb: 100 degrees of bank, 60 degrees of pitch. Past these limits, the instrument is known to tumble
When temp and dew point are close together what type of weather is likely?
Visible Moisture is likely. (Clouds, dew, fog)
What does the term "UNRELIABLE" indicate when used in conjunction with GPS and WAAS NOTAMs?
Indicates that the expected level of WAAS service may not be available. (Predictive in Nature)
What information does the turn coordinator provide to the pilot?
The miniature aircraft in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll, and direction of turn. The Ball indicates the quality of the turn
When Planning a RNAV route, where should your route begin and end?
begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or appropriate navigation aids for the altitude stratum within which the flight will be conducted
How does the turn coordinator operate?
The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying ot move in reaction to the force applied thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube filled with liquid. the ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn
What instrument indications should you expect while using alternate air?
Altimeter: indicate higher than the actual altitude Airspeed: indicate faster than the actual airspeed VSI: indicate a climb while in lever flight
What is True Airspeed?
TAS is CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature
Identify the following color markings and positions on the airspeed indicator: White arc, Lower Limit of White Arc, Upper limit of White arc, Green Arc, Lower limit of green arc, Upper limit of green arc, Yellow arc, red Line
White arc: Flap operating range Lower Limit of the White arc: stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration Upper Limit of the White arc: maximum speed with flaps extended Green arc: Normal operating range Lower limit of green arc: Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a clean configuration Upper limit of the green arc: max structural cruising speed Yellow arc: caution range (SMOOTH AIR ONLY) Red Line: Never exceed Speed
During a preflight, that type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?
a) Location of fronts - Location, type, speed, and direction of movement b) Cloud Layers - location of cloud bases and tops; determine if you will be able to climb above or descend below icing layers c) Freezing Levels - important in determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing if accidentally encountered. d) Air Temp and Pressure - Ice tends to be found in low pressure areas and at temps around freezing e) Precipitation - Help avoid areas conducive to icing
Section 8
(50 cards)
What factors are necessary for a thunderstorm to form?
Moisture, Unstable Lapse Rate, Lifting force
What are the three types of AIRMETs?
Sierra: IFR Conditions/Mountain Obscurations Tango: Turbulence, Wind Shear (Low Level) Zulu: Icing
What instruments operate off pitot/static?
Airspeed, Altimeter, Vertical Speed
What does "cleared as filed" mean?
IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan
What instruments are required for IFR operations?
VFR + GRABCARD G: Generator or Alternator R: Radios A: Altimeter B: Ball(Slip/skid Indicator) C: Clock A: Attitude Indicator R: Rate of Turn D: Directional Gyro D: DME/RNAV
How often are GPS databases required to be updated?
Navigation database is updated every 28 days, Obstacle data every 56 days
What is "EFAS"?
Enroute Flight Advisory Service, provide enroute aircraft timely and meaningful weather advisories
What are DPs and why are they necessary?
Departure Procedures are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from terminal area to enroute structure, necessary because increase efficiency and obstacle clearance
Name several types of weather observing programs.
Manual, AWOS, AWOS Broadcasts, ASOS/AWOS
How does the heading indicator work and what are the limitations?
Rigidity in Space, rotor turns in a vertical plane and fixed to rotor is compass card, 55 degrees of pitch and bank
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?
Prior to departing from within or entering controlled airspace, below VFR weather conditions
How does the vacuum system operate?
The vacuum or pressure system spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds
What is the definition of the term freezing level?
Lowest altitude at which the air temp reaches 0 degrees Celsius
What is the definition of the term ceiling?
Lowest layer of clouds (Broken, Overcast)
What are PIREPs and where are they found?
"Pilot Weather Reports", a report of meteorological phenomena encountered by aircraft in flight
Which instruments contain gyroscopes?
Turn Coordinator, Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator
What are the important transponder codes?
1200: VFR 7700: Emergency 7600: Communications Emergency 7500: Hijacking
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
18 degrees of bank
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
Stability of the Atomosphere
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed,what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?
Mountainous Terrain: 2000 ft above highest obstacle with 4 nm Other: 1000 ft above highest obstacle within horizontal distance of 4 NM
What are the main types of icing?
Structural, Induction System, Instrument
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace?
Any loss in controlled airspace of VOR, TACAN receiver capability, GPS Anomalies, Complete or partial loss of ILS reciever capability, Impairment of air/ground communication ability
What is a surface analysis chart?
Locating pressure systems and fronts, overview of winds, temps, dew point
What are two important characteristics of gyros?
Rigidity: Prevents its axis of rotation tilting as earth rotates Precession: An applied force is felt 90 degrees from that point in the direction of rotation
What is a SIGMET?
Advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft
Describe high and low pressure systems
Low: Inward, Upward, Counterclockwise High: Outward, Downward, Clockwise
What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?
Fly to first airport, the alternate and then 45 more minutes
What are the various compass errors?
Oscillation: Erratic movement due to turbulence Deviation: Electrical and magnetic disturbances Variation: Difference between true and magnetic north
What is a convective SIGMET?
Implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear, any seriously hazardous weather
What color are runway edge lights?
White, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on last 2000 ft of runway or half
How does the turn coordinator operate?
Uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn
What are unpublished RNAV routes?
Essentially your own routes
What is an AIRMET?
Advisories of significant weather phenomena but describe conditions at intensities lower than those which issue a SIGMET
What is necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and 0 degrees Celsius or colder
Define the terms LIFR, IFR, MVFR, VFR.
LIFR: Ceiling less than 500 ft and/or Visibility < 1 Mile IFR: Ceiling 500 to less than 1000 ft and/or Visibility 1 < 3 Miles MVFR: Ceiling 1000 to 3o00 ft and/or Visibility 3 to 5 mi VFR: Ceiling > 3000 ft and Visibility > 5 Miles, SKC
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
If temp decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb, the unstable, otherwise stable
How does the vertical speed indicator work?
Aneroid is inside an instrument case that is vented to static system which causes pressure changes
Name several types of fog.
Upslope, Advection, Precipitation Induced, Radiation, Ice
What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
Climb or descend at a rate between 500 and 1500 fpm until assigned altitude
What are some methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
VOT Check: +- 4 (108.0, 0 degrees TO/FROM with from) Cessna 182 VOR Ground Checkpoint: +-4 VOR Airborne Checkpoint: +-6
What is a nonstandard versus a standard holding pattern?
In a standard holding pattern, all turns to the right
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
C: Clearance Limit R: Route A: Altitude F: Frequency T: Transponder
What does the operation of a rotating beacon at an airport within Class D airspace during daylight hours mean?
Ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1000 ft
What are the two types of DPs?
ODP: Obstacle Departure Procedure SID: Standard Instrument Departures
What are the two types of SIDs?
Pilot Navigation SIDs: Own navigation with minimal radio communication Vector SIDs: ATC provides vectors after takeoff
How does the altimeter work?
Aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes
What are the alternate airport requirements?
1,2,3 1 hour before and 1 hour after, at least 2000 ft ceilings and 3 miles vis
What is the PAVE model?
P: Pilot-In-Command A: Aircraft V: EnVironment E: External Pressures
How does the attitude indicator work and what are the limitations?
Rigidity in Space, horizon bar is fixed to gyro and remains horizontal as airplane banks or pitches, 100 to 110 degrees bank, 60 to 70 degrees pitch
What are NOTAMs?
Time critical aeronautical information
Section 9
(50 cards)
What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
165 mph
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When standard atmospheric conditions exists
Which V-Speed represents maneuvering speed?
Va
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
Vx
What is the leg length for a standard holding pattern?
1 minute inbound at or below 14,000 ft and 1 and half minutes inbound above 14000 ft
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Never-exceed speed
If it is necessary to set the altimeter form 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
700-foot increase in indicated altitude
What is a terminal arrival area (TAA)?
Published or assigned track by which aircraft are transitioned from en route phase to terminal area
What is absolute altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
When attempting to circumnavigate thunderstorms, what minimum distance is required?
20 miles
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
108.0 to 117.95
Vno is defined as the
Maximum structural cruising speed
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
18,000 feet MSL
Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
Lower limit of the white arc
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
Vy
What is the caution range of the airplane?
165-208 mph
Which color identifies the never-exceeded speed?
The red radial line
If a flight mad from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressur without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
higher than the actual altitude above sea level
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
3: Latitude, Longitude 4: Latitude, Longitude, Altitude (3D) 5: 3D and RAIM 6: 3D and RAIM and removes bad signals
What are the oxygen requirements?
From 12,500 to 14000 after 30 minutes, crew must have it From 14000 to 15000, crew must have it on always Above 150000, provided to passengers and crew must have it
What is density altitude?
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
The white arc
What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
What is an HSI?
Horizontal Sitatuation Indicator, uses output from a flux valve to drive the compass card
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
Vfe
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
Maneuvering speed
What are PAR and ASR approaches?
A PAR approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides accurate navigational guidance, ASR approach is same as PAR except not precision
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature
What is the maximum slaps extended speed?
100 mph
The DECIDE model of decision making involves which elements?
D: Detect E: Estimate C: Choose I: Identify D: Do E: Evaluate
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Vle
Vso is defined as the
stalling speed of minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
208 mph
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
true altitude at field elevation
Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
Lower limit of the green arc
What is required navigation performance?
RNP is RNAV with in-board navigation monitoring and alerting
If a flight made form an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimete setting being adjuste, the altimeter will indicate
lower than the actual altitude above sea level
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
When at sea level under standard conditions
What is WAAS?
Wide Area Augmentation System, additional ground stations and enhanced position intergrity
What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
60 to 100 mph
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard
What are the three different ways to enter a holding pattern?
Parallel, Teardrop and Direct
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
When is DME equipment required?
Above FL240
What angular deviation is represented by a half-scale deflection of the CDI?
Full Scale: 10 Degrees Half Scale: 5 Degrees
Under what conditions will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
In colder than standard temperature
What is pressure altitude?
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route, simplify clearance delivery
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
The elevation of the departure area
Section 10
(42 cards)