Section 1
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Section 1
(50 cards)
REIL
ILS Localizer
An instrument landing system (ILS) enables aircraft to land if the pilots are unable to establish visual contact with the runway. It does this by way of transmitted radio signals.
MOCA
ANA
Alternate Minimums not authorized
SDF Course
Simplified directional facility (SDF) is a localizer-based instrument non-precision approach to an airport, which provides final approach course similar to instrument landing system (ILS) and localizer type directional aid (LDA) approaches, although not as precise
LMM, LOM (Compass locator)
A low power, low or medium frequency (L/MF) radio beacon installed at the site of the outer or middle marker of an instrument landing system (ILS). Outer Compass Locator (LOM)− A compass locator installed at the site of the outer marker of an instrument landing system. Middle Compass Locator (LMM)− A compass locator installed at the site of the middle marker of an instrument landing system.
MDA
Minimum Decent Altitude
Waypoint (compulsory)
VDP
Visual Decent Point
DME fix
VOR-DME
MAP
Missed Approach Procedure
Lost Communications Track
Final Approach Course
LOC, LDA, SDF Front Course
A
Radial line and value
VORTAC
Transition Route
MEA Minimum Enroute Altitude
IAF
Initial approach fix
T
Non standard takeoff Minimums
Waypoint
Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude
NDB (compulsory)
Departure Route - Arrival Route
Marker beacon
TDZE
Touchdown zone
AER
Approach end of runway
MLS Course
FB
Fly-by Waypoint
Localizer Course
Instrument landing system localizer (short: localizer [LOC or LLZ]) is a system of horizontal guidance in the instrument landing system, which is used to guide aircraft along the axis of the runway.
MOCA Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
VOR
MTR
Military Training Route
Mileage between radio aids, reporting points and route breaks
MTA
Minimum Turning Altitude
Waypoint (noncompulsory)
LDA
Landing distance available
Air Route Traffic Control Centers
IAF
Initial Approach Fix
VOR
Very high frequency Omni range
FO
Fly-over waypoint
MALSR
Medium approach light system w/ runway indicator lights
Procedure turn barb
SER
Start end of runway
NDB/DME (compulsory)
FAF
Final approach fix
LOC Back Course
Runway Center Lights
Section 2
(50 cards)
Maximum Airspeed
MSA
Minimum Safe Altitude
STAR
The (STAR) standard terminal arrival route provides a common way for aircraft to leave the en-route structure and navigate to the destination airport. A STAR starts at the en-route structure and ends at a fix or navaid.
DP holding pattern
ILS
Instrument Landing System a precision runway approach aid based on two radio beams which together provide pilots with both vertical and horizontal guidance during an approach to land.
Non-Precision Approach Minimums
Rime Ice
A rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water drops. It is generally rougher in appearance than clear ice.
Adiabatic Cooling
A process by which a parcel of air cools. When a parcel of air is lifted, pressure is reduced due to the elevation increase. This reduction in pressure causes the parcel of air to expand in volume and, in turn, the parcel cools to maintain an energy balance because no energy is added to the parcel.
VOR
VHF Omni Directional Radio Range (VOR) is a type of short-range radio navigation system for aircraft, enabling aircraft with a receiving unit to determine their position and stay on course by receiving radio signals transmitted by a network of fixed ground radio beacons.
Distance not to scale (DP)
Indicated Altitude
Indicated altitude—read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) when it is set to the current altimeter setting. Read more http://www.flightlearnings.com/2010/04/30/altimeters-part-six-types-of-altitude/
Ice Crystals
Ice crystals, which are often in high concentrations near convective weather systems and lower concentrations in stratus or cirrus clouds, can accrete within turbine engines and cause power loss when in high concentrations. Ice crystals are not typically detected by either conventional ice detectors or airborne radar, and typically do not accrete on external airframe surfaces.
Flyover point
STAR holding pattern
Special use airspace Restricted
Mandatory Airspeed
UNOS
Undershoot North Overshoot South
Precision Approach Minimums
ORM-d
Other regulated materials
Clear Ice
A glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of supercooled water drops. The terms "clear" and "glaze" have been used for essentially the same type of ice accretion, although some reserve "clear" for thinner accretions, which lack horns and conform to the airfoil. If the freezing becomes more rapid, clear ice will turn cloudy as small bubbles of air become trapped in the ice. If the conditions persist, the ice would be classified as mixed.
Absolute Altitude
What is the zig zag line?
Unusable route
What is a slipping turn?
VDP
Visual Decent Point
Rime Ice
Mandatory Altitude Crossover point
What is a Skidding turn?
Basic IFR Departure Clearance Items CRAFT
AHRS
Attitude Heading Reference Systems consists of sensors on three axes that provide attitude information for aircraft, including roll, pitch and yaw.They are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy.
ASR
Approach Surveillance Radar
Flyover point
Avoid wake turbulence by landing
Beyond the touchdown point
What is the dotted green line?
Time zone boundary
SID
Standard Instrument Departure
Minimum Altitude Cross at or above
Minimum airspeed
Pressure Altitude
Altitude indicated whenever the altimeter setting dial is set to 29.92 hg (standard datum plane)
TLS
Transponder Landing System A transponder landing system (TLS) is an all-weather, precision landing system that uses existing airborne transponder and instrument landing system (ILS) equipment to create a precision approach at a location where an ILS would normally not be available.
VOTVOR
VOR Test facility, The FAA VOR test facility (VOT) transmits a test signal which provides users a convenient means to determine the operational status and accuracy of a VOR receiver while on the ground where a VOT is located. *VOT frequency is only found in Airport Facility Directory (AFD)
ADC
Air Data Computers An air data computer (ADC) is an essential avionics component found in modern glass cockpits. This computer, rather than individual instruments, can determine the calibrated airspeed, Mach number, altitude, and altitude trend data from an aircraft's pitot-static system.
This symbol denotes a:
Changeover point
Density Altitude
Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. As temperature and altitude increase, air density decreases. In a sense, it's the altitude at which the airplane "feels" its flying.
NW Wind at 25 knots
True Altitude
CDI
Course Deviation Indicator
Pitch instruments
Airspeed, Attitude, VSI
Clear ice
Changeover Point
Block Altitude
Maximum Altitude Cross at or below
Section 3
(50 cards)
Class C requirements
Which publication covers the Procedures required for aircraft accidents and incidents responsibilities for pilots ?
NTSB Part 430
Personal documents required for flight:
Personal documents required for flight: - Pilot certificate - Medical certificate - Authorized photo ID (passport, driver's license, etc) - Restricted radiotelephone operator license (for flights outside the U.S.) (§61.3 and FCC)
IFR minimum altitudes
IFR minimum altitudes Minimum prescribed, or if none: Mountainous areas: 2,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. (§91.177)
Why is this airport colored brown?
No published approach Procedures
Sea Smoke or Steam Fog
Class B requirements
Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)
Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) - A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.
What is generally the maximum Altitude for Class B airspace?
10,000' MSL
Class E requirements
What does the "X" on top of the VOR / DME represent?
Minimum Crossing Altitude
Release time
Release time - The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.
Historoxic Hypoxia
Inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood. This can be caused by use of alcohol or drugs.
Advection Fog
Air moving horizontally
What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)
14,500' MSL
Basic IFR departure clearance items
C-Clearance Limit R-Route A-Altitude F-Frequency (for departure) T-Transponder code
Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR
A.V.I.A.T.E- - A-Annual inspection every 12 cal. Months - V-VOR every 30 days - I-100 hour inspection - A-Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system every 24 cal. months - T-Transponder every 24 months - E-ELT every 12 months
Hold for release
"Hold for release" - You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
What are Class E Weather Minimums?
Valley Fog
Clearance void time
Clearance void time - The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.
Different types of holding patterns
A holding pattern for instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft is usually a racetrack pattern based on a holding fix. This fix can be a radio beacon such as a non-directional beacon (NDB) or VHF omnidirectional range (VOR). The fix is the start of the first turn of the racetrack pattern. Aircraft will fly towards the fix, and once there will enter a predefined racetrack pattern. A standard holding pattern uses right-hand turns and takes approximately 4 minutes to complete (one minute for each 180 degree turn, and two one-minute straight ahead sections).
Upslope Fog
Where is the airport diagram on an approach plate?
Lower right
Basic IFR departure clearance items
Basic IFR departure clearance items C.R.A.F.T - C-Clearance Limit R-Route A-Altitude F-Frequency (for departure) T-Transponder code
What types of illusions are there?
Where are Minimums listed on an approach plate?
Bottom left
Types of Hypoxia
Hypoxia - insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells. Hypoxic hypoxia - insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole. As altitude increases, O2 percentage of the atmosphere is constant, but its pressure decreases. The reduced pressure becomes insufficient for the O2 molecules to pass through the respiratory system's membranes. Hypemic hypoxia - Inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules. It may be a result of insufficient blood (bleeding or blood donation), anemia, or CO poisoning. Histotoxic hypoxia - Inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood. This can be caused by use of alcohol or drugs. Stagnant hypoxia - Caused by the blood not flowing to a body tissue. Can be caused by heart problems, excessive acceleration (Gs), shock or a constricted blood vessel.
Aircraft documents required for flight:
Aircraft documents required for flight: A.R.R.O.W- A- Airworthiness certificate R-Registration certificate R-Radio station license (for international flights) O-Operating limitations & AFM W-Weight & Balance data (§21.5, §91.103, §91.9, §91.203, FCC form 605)
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
700' AGL
What is VFR over the top?
VFR over-the-top, which refers to flying over a cloud layer in VFR operations and not on an IFR flight plan.
Oxygen requirements above 14,000 MSL
The vertical extent of Class A airspace in he conterminous US extends from:
18,000 ft to and including FL600
Oxygen requirements above 15,000 MSL
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?
1,200 feet AGL
Class A requirements
IFR cruising altitudes
Which Altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
2500' AGL
Where is VFR on the top prohibited?
Class A airspace
Stagnant Hypoxia
Caused by the blood not flowing to a body tissue. Can be caused by heart problems, excessive acceleration (Gs), shock or a constricted blood vessel.
Radiation or Ground fog
Hypemic Hypoxia
Inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules. It may be a result of insufficient blood (bleeding or blood donation), anemia, or CO poisoning.
Mandatory reports under IFR M.A.R.V.E.L.O.U.S. V.F.R. C.500 -
M-Missed approach (AIM 5-3-3) A-Airspeed ±10kt / 5% change of filed TAS (AIM 5-3-3) R-Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) (AIM 5-3-3) V-VFR on top (AIM 5-3-3) E*-ETA change ±3 min (AIM 5-3-3) L-Leaving a holding fix/point (AIM 5-3-3) O*-Outer marker (AIM 5-3-3) U-Unforecasted weather (§91.183) S-Safety of flight (§91.183) V-Vacating an altitude/FL (AIM 5-3-3) F*-Final approach fix (AIM 5-3-3) R-Radio/Nav failure (§91.187) C*-Compulsory reporting points (§91.183) 500-unable climb/descent 500 fpm (AIM 5-3-3) *required only in a non-radar environment (including ATC radar failure)
Abbreviated departure clearance
Abbreviated departure clearance = "Cleared (...) as filed (...)"
Ice fog
A type of fog consisting of fine ice crystals suspended in the air. It occurs only in cold areas of the world, as water droplets suspended in the air can remain liquid down to −40 °C (−40 °F).
What is VFR on the top?
This clearance must be requested by the pilot on an IFR flight plan, and if approved, allows the pilot the choice (subject to any ATC restrictions) to select an altitude or flight level in lieu of an assigned altitude.
Oxygen requirements above 12,500 MSL
Hypoxic Hypoxia
insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole. As altitude increases, O2 percentage of the atmosphere is constant, but its pressure decreases. The reduced pressure becomes insufficient for the O2 molecules to pass through the respiratory system's membranes.
Section 4
(50 cards)
Pressure Altitude
Pressure altitude - Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane. (QNE)
ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign
This sign is located adjacent to the ILS holding position marking on the pavement and can be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue which they can use as a guide in deciding when they are "clear of the ILS critical area."
OM
Outer marker
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
VDP
Visual Descent point (VDP) A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established. If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published. When a VDP is not published you can use this formula to calculate it: VDP (in NM from threshold) = HAT/300, or 10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from time to MAP
True Altitude
True altitude - Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
Nimbus means
Rain cloud
COP
Change Over Point
MOCA
MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude. Provides navigation coverage and obstacle clearance within 22 NM of the NAVAID.
DA/H
DA/H - Descent Altitude/Height.
Maneuvering Speed on Cessna 172 SP
105 kias
RVR
Runway Visual Range Runway visual range (RVR) is in aviation meteorology the distance over which a pilot of an aircraft on the centreline of the runway can see the runway surface markings delineating the runway or identifying its centre line. RVR is normally expressed in feet or meters. RVR is used to determine the landing and takeoff conditions for aircraft pilots, as well as the type of operational visual aids used at airport.
When landing behind large jet aircraft, at which point should you plan to land?
Beyond the jets touchdown point
Absolute Altitude
Absolute altitude - Height above airport elevation (QFE).
Standard Rate Turn
3 degrees per second
Indicated altitude
Indicated altitude - Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).
SLD
Supercooled Large Droplets Supercooled Large Droplets (SLD) can be up to 100 times larger, and their mass is so great that they can strike well behind the protected areas of an aircraft. Despite icing certification limitations, accidents and incidents in SLD conditions have been documented, especially following sustained flight in freezing drizzle or freezing rain.
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, or MOCA, is the lowest published altitude in effect between fixes on VOR airways or route segments that meets obstacle (like a building or a tower) clearance requirements for the entire route segment.
DME
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) 962-1213 MHz (UHF). Normally tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC). The Airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal. The ground DME facility receives and replies to the interrogation. The time passed is used by the airborne unit to calculate the slant range distance from the aircraft to the station. Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM from the DME station per every 1000ft.
The general characteristics of unstable air are:
Good visibility, showery precipitation and cumuliform type clouds
Density Altitude
Density altitude - pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.
Stratiform clouds
Little or no turbulence
MVA
MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude.
Which system has malfunctioned if your heading indicator is not moving?
Vacuum system or electrical power
VOR accuracy check - Dual VOR
+/- 4 degrees
MCA
MCA - Minimum Crossing Altitude.
MDA/H
MDA/H - Minimum Descent Altitude/Height.
VOR accuracy check - Single VOR in the air
+/- 6 degrees
MRA
MRA - Minimum Reception Altitude
Where can a VOT frequency be found?
Airport facility directory
cumuliform clouds
vertically developed and form when air mass is unstable
Aircraft are prohibited
A high cloud is composed of mostly
Ice crystals
VOT ground check
+/- 4 degrees
OROCA
OROCA - Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (NACO charts). Assures obstacle clearance within 4NM of course. 1000' over non-mountainous terrain; 2000' over mountainous terrain.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence?
Light quartering tailwind
MM
Middle marker
VOR ground check
+/- 4 degrees
NDB
NDB: Non-Directional Beacon Operates at the 190-535 kHz range (can receive and point towards commercial radio AM station at 550 -1650 kHz). Low to medium frequency band. ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB station. Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing
VOT
FAA VOR test facility
MEA
MEA - Minimum En route Altitude. Assures
MAA
MAA - Maximum Authorized Altitude.
Half Standard Rate Turn
1.5 degrees per second
HIRL
High Intensity Runway Lights
Runway boundary sign
This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot exiting the runway, is located adjacent to the holding position marking on the pavement. The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue which they can use as a guide in deciding when they are "clear of the runway."
RVR (feet) Visibility (statute miles)
What are four families of clouds?
High, middle, low and those with extensive vertical development
ALS
Approach Light System (ALS) Helps the transition between radio-guided flights into a visual approach. Can help in estimating flight visibility if you know the dimensions of the specific ALS configuration.
IFR takeoff minimums (§91.175)
IFR takeoff minimums (§91.175) No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations. Part 121, 125, 129, 135: Prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway, or, if none: 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility
EGT
Exhaust Gas Temperature
Section 5
(50 cards)
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots to a peak of 20 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.
Frontal waves normally form on
Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
PIREPS - turbulence
/TB
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
Lightening
An air mass is a body of air that:
Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture
The strength and location of a jet stream is normally
Weaker and farther north in the summer
PIREP - wind
/WV Direction in magnetic north and speed in kts
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone.
What is the most appropriate source to obtain information and destination weather at your arrival time?
Terminal Aerodome Forecast (TAF)
HIWAS
Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service
WND in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be
Sustained surface wind speed of 20 kts or stronger
PIREP - aircraft type
/TP Essential for turbulence and icing reports
Where can wind shear with a thunderstorm be found?
On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
64 nautical miles on the 63 radial from Oklahoma City VOR
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
5 radius of the center of an airport.
A ceiling is defined as
Lowest layer of clouds or phenomena aloft that is reported broken or overcast
What is operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
I which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation
Freezing rain
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
A jet stream is defined as wind of
50 knots or greater.
What is metar VV008
Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet
PIREP - sky cover
/SK Cloud height and coverage (sky clear, few, scattered, broken or overcast)
Where do squall lines most often develop?
Ahead of a cold front.
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
A wind change
Squall line
A line of active thunderstorms, either continuous or with breaks, including contiguous precipitation areas resulting from the existence of the thunderstorms.
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of:
Very strong turbulence
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It may be associated with either a wind shift or wind speed gradient in any layer in the atmosphere
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm
The start of rain at the surface
HIWAS
Sigmets, convective sigmets, airmets, severe weather forecast alerts, and center weather advisories
What is characteristic of STABLE air?
Stratiform clouds
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
Reduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%
Under what meteorological condition does a pilot have to assume the existence of wind shear?
With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
PIREP - location
/OV In relation to a VOR
If standing lenticular clouds are seen over a mountainous area, a pilot should:
Be aware of severe mountain wave turbulence
PIREP - altitude
/FL Essential for turbulence and icing reports
When the visibility is greater than 6SM on a TAF, it is expressed as
P6SM
Which clouds have greatest turbulence?
Cumulonimbus
VRB means
No more than 6 kts
PIREP - remarks
/RM
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
Turbulence at and below the cloud level
What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'
Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
PIREP - temperature
Degrees Celsius
PIREP - icing
/IC
ADS-B
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast
Metal notes
Rain ended 42 past hour, snow began 42 past hour
PIREP - report type
UA (Routine) or UUA (Urgent PIREP)
PIREP - time
/TM Coordinated Universal Time
00000kt means
Calm
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.
Section 6
(50 cards)
While an aircraft is on approach, a shear from a headwind to a tailwind (or calm) causes:
- The airspeed to decrease; - The nose to pitch down; - The aircraft to drop below the glide slope. If the pilot pulls the nose up to compensate, airspeed will be reduced even further.
Which area on an aircraft will generally show the first signs of icing?
Small and narrow components.
FA
Area Forecast
When water vapor condenses
Clouds, fog or dew will form
When are severe weather watch bulletins issued? (WW)
Unscheduled and issued as required
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to low level temperature inversions?
Allow airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed.
Severe turbulence associated with the jet stream at FL 300 and FL 370
Convective forecast
Area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms issued during following 24 hrs
The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on
Air temperature
SIGMETs are valid for
4 hours
Sea level temperature is
15 degrees Celsius
ISOL (Isolated)
Meaning less than 4/8 th
Dust
Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles is considered a
SIGMET
What conclusion can be drawn from a 500 millibar-bar constant pressure chart for a planned flight at FL 180?
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated
Frost adhering to the wing will
Decrease the margin of airspeed above the stall
Total Shear = Double The Peak Wind Speed Gust speeds in the outflow can reach 45 knots. If that were the case, you'd experience 90 knots of shear, which is more than any aircraft can safely handle.
When cruising in known icing conditions, you should periodically
Disengage the autopilot and hand fly the aircraft
LLWS
Low Level Wind Shear
FA
Aviation Area Forecast (FA) is a forecast of visual meteorological conditions (VMC), clouds, and general weather conditions over an area the size of several states.
Drizzle
What is the maximum forecast period of AIRMETS?
Six hours
Shower (Rain)
Fog
If you are using airborne weather radar to avoid thunderstorms, you should be aware that
You may encounter hail several miles from the clouds Never go closer than 5 miles to any visible storm cloud with overhanging areas, and strongly consider increasing that distance to 20 miles or more. You can encounter hail and violent turbulence anywhere within 20 miles of very strong thunderstorms.
Clouds, fog or dew will always form when
Water vapor condenses ( condense means 'changes from a vapor to a liquid)
XXX on a weather chart means
Bases extend below FL 250
Cumuliform clouds
Indication of unstable, moist air and orographic lifting
OCNL (occasional)
Meaning 4/8 to 6/8
A station is forecasting at FL 390 300 degrees @ 200 kts - 54 degrees Celsius, how would that be encoded?
809954 Since wind velocity is greater than 100, we add 50. So 300 is 30 ( drop zero ), 30 + 50 = 80. Since wind is 200 kts or greater, it is encoded as 99.
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope (dry adiabatic lapse rate)
3.0 degrees C
LLWS
Low level wind shear
AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every
Six hours
What Does bracket mean?
The station is an automated weather location
What is the meaning of this symbol as used on the US Low Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?
Showery precipitation (eg rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area.
A constant pressure chart provides
A plan view of weather at a specific pressure altitude
A temperature inversion will normally form in only:
Stable air
Maximum down drafts in a microburst encounter can be as much as
6000 ft / minute
In a standard atmosphere, the lapse rate is
2 degrees per 1000'
If the wind is calm, or there is a slight tailwind, and the flow shears into a headwind, this causes:
- The airspeed to increase - The nose to pitch up - The aircraft to balloon upward above the glide slope The airplane will land long and could run out of runway.
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?
General thunderstorm activity
FRQ (frequent)
Meaning more than 6/8th coverage
What is maximum wind velocity forecast in jet stream shown?
130
Rain
TWEB
Transcribed Weather Broadcast
SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous to
All aircraft regardless of size or operating environment
Convective Outlook (AC)
Defines slight, moderate and high risk of severe and general thunderstorm activity
Surface analysis
Actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart
ICTS
Ice Contaminated Tailplane Stall
Snow
Section 7
(50 cards)
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
When are convective SIGMETs issued?
Convective SIGMETs are issued on an hourly basis at 55 minutes past the hour and are valid for a two hour period.
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a 24 hour period?
General thunderstorm activity
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
squall line
If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?
90 seconds 135 degrees / 1.5 seconds per seconds = 90 seconds
What would the temperature be at 8000' MSL under standard conditions?
1 degree Celsius
NoPT
No Procedure Turn
VDP
Visual Descent Point
PT
Procedure Turn
during the lifecycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts
Dissipating
Airplane icing
Must be completely cleared before flight
A thunderstorm cell has three stages
Cumulus Mature Disapating
What are the determining factors in the stability of an air mass?
Moisture and temperature
Forecast says 1312+5
Wind is 130 degrees, wind speed 12kts, temperature is 5 degrees Celsius
Which is an effect of ice, snow or frost on an airplane wing?
Decreased angle of attack for stalls ( stall can occur prior to activation of stall warning devices)
What is distance from Shaff to Helon
24 nm
What are the Thunderstorm Life stages?
Cumulus Mature Dissipating
cumuliform clouds
Indication of unstable air mass
TAF
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast - A forecast of weather conditions at a specific airport
Decision Height (DH)
is the height at which a decision must be made to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach. AGL
Surface friction in mountainous areas will cause wind speed to
Decrease
Missed Approach
What is standard sea level temperature?
+15 degrees Celsius
What weather phenomenon poses the greatest hazards to aircraft when operating near a thunderstorm ?
Lightening
Convective outlook
Shows slight, moderate and high risk of severe thunderstorm activity
General rule for Thunderstorm avoidance
Stay 5 miles away from thunderstorms and 20 miles away from SEVERE Thunderstorms
What is left side of Garmin 430?
Communications
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
Decision Altitude (DA)
is a specified altitude in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual reference, or to continue the approach. Decision altitude is expressed in feet above mean sea level.
Structural icing will most likely form on the
Tail Small and narrow objects are the best collectors of droplets, and ice upmost rapidly.
LDA
HIWAS
Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories, including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs.
1/2 standard rate turn
1.5 degrees per second
Standard Rate Turn
3 degrees per second
TAF
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast - A forecast of weather conditions at a specific airport
Graphical Airmet (G-Airmet)
Graphical forecasts of en-route weather hazards
HIWAS
Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories, including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs.
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a 24 hour period?
General thunderstorm activity
You encounter freezing drizzle at your flight altitude, this is an indication that
WARMER air is above you
VDA
Vertical Descent Angle
ICTS
Ice contaminated tailplane stall
Final Approach Fix
FAF
CNF
Computer Navigation Fix
What is right side of the Garmin 430?
Navigations
Advection fog
a fog formed when warm, moist air is blown over a cool surface
Frost
Disrupts the flow of air over the wing and can drastically reduce the production of lift
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.
Microbursts are characterized by having down bursts which
Can cause even a high performance aircraft to loose significant altitude
A good indication of the stability of an air mass
The form and structure of clouds
Fast moving low pressure trough can be indication of
Possibility of Severe weather
Section 8
(50 cards)
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
50 feet
What is button with arrow through it?
Direct-to - allows you to enter a destination waypoint and establish a direct course to the destination
To enter a constant air speed decent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should:
Simultaneously adjust the power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degrees
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes and in many countries assures accept- able navigational signal coverage. The MEA applies to the entire width of the airway, segment, or route between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment, or route.
Which OBS selection would center the CDI?
174 degrees
Standard turns are
Right turns on 1 minute legs below 14,000 feet
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.
On which radial is the aircraft?
R 345
To correct from an altitude deviation, identify the primary pitch instruments to include in your cross-check.
Attitude indicator, altimeter and vsi.
In straight and level instrument flight using primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?
Altimeter
What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial?
4 degrees
VOR IFI
Kingfisher
After passing the VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
The airplane is flying away from the radial.
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
Half bar width on the attitude indicator
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
Airspeed indicator
To level off at an airspeed higher than the decent speed, the addition of the power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of decent, at approximately:
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude
What are 5 T's for holding pattern?
Turn Time Twist Throttle Talk
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
5 degrees
Which instrument, in a primary-secondary relationship, is the primary instrument for bank control in straight and level flight?
Heading indicator
PROC button
Procedures key allows selection of approaches, departures, and arrivals from active flight plan.
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?
The first complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
What is in VLOC section?
VOR / Localizer frequencies (active and standby)
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Standard Holds Inbound Leg Length: 14,000 ft MSL and below
1 minute
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
increase as angle of bank increases.
Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)
Minimum altitude at which an intersection may be crossed to maintain obstacle clearance -Signified by flag with X in it
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
What is button with the 'C'?
COM - power / volume
Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant speed climb from straight and level flight?
Attitude indicator and turn coordinator
What is button with the 'V'?
VLOC - VOR / Localizer frequency
To level off from a decent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by:
10 percent of the vertical speed
NoPT
No procedure turn authorized
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude, without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the:
Altimeter and airspeed stabilize
What is in COM section?
COM frequencies (active and standby)
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to level attitude.
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
CDI button
Used to toggle which navigation source (GPS or VLOC) provides output to an external HSI or CDI
FPL button
Flight plan key allows you to create, edit, activate and invert flight plans, as well as access approaches, departures, and arrivals.
OBS button
Used to select manual or automatic sequencing of waypoints
VOR IRW
Will Rogers
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Power only.
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitudes?
10 percent
All missed approached end up in a:
Hold
Standard Holding Patterns are timed __________________ legs.
Inbound
Section 9
(50 cards)
EFC
Expect Further Clearance
Which distance is indicated by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM
What color are Outer Marker (OM) Beacons
Blue
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature
What is the difference between the LDA (Localizer Directional Aid) and the ILS Localizer?
The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
removal of the identification feature
MSA
Minimum Safe Altitude
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
200 nm
CDI
Course Deviation Indicator
Mandatory: Holding position for runway/runway intersection
LDA
Localizer Type Directional Aid
NoPT
No procedure turns
Half scale deflection =
5 degrees
Mandatory: Holding position for runway approach area
SDF
Simplified Direction Finder Approach
Which range facility associated with an ILS can be identified by the last two letters of the Localizer identification group?
Middle compass locator
Mandatory: Hold position for taxiway/runway intersection
ASR
Approach Surveillance Radar
As a guide in making range corrections, change the relative bearing __________ for each half-mile deviation from the desired arc.
10 degrees - 20 degrees
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
Deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
CNF
Computer Navigation Fix
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative
Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
A PAR approach is similar to an ILS. Both vertical and lateral navigation guidance is provided to the pilot, all without the use of navigation-reliant cockpit instrumentation. Air Traffic Controllers use radar to track the aircraft's position, then tell pilots over the radio what corrections they should make. These approaches are most commonly found at military bases around the country.
LDA
Localizer Type Directional Aid
What color are Middle Marker (MM) Beacons
Amber
TCH
Threshold Crossing Height
HSI
Horizontal Situation Indicator
Standard Holds are ______________turns.
Right
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
MDA
Minimum Descent Altitude
Approach Surveillance Radar (ASR)
The only equipment required for an ASR approach is a functioning radio. The controller vectors the aircraft to align it with the runway centerline, and continues to do so until the aircraft can make a landing visually. It's flown in a similar fashion to many non-precision approaches, where step-down altitudes are used along the final approach path.
What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?
A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach
What color are Inner Marker (IM) Beacons?
White
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degree glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed increases, rate of decent must increase.
How should a pilot determine when the DME is inoperative?
The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System)
A system of satellites and ground stations that provide GPS signal corrections, giving you even better position accuracy. An average of five times better. WAAS is an extremely accurate navigation system developed for civil aviation.
CDI
Course Deviation Indicator
What are the main differences between an SDF and a localizer of an ILS?
The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
What is the difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?
The SDF course width is either 6 degrees or 12 degrees while the LDA course width is approximately 5 degrees
OBS
Omni Bearing Selector
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
1 ( 6000' = 1 NM)
Mandatory: Holding position for ILS critical area/precision obstacle free zone
WAAS
Wide Area Augmentation System
How wide is an SDF course?
Either 6° or 12°.
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
In lieu of the OM
DA
Decision Altitude
LDA approaches:
LDA approaches utilize a localizer that's simply offset from a runway centerline, often due to terrain.
PAR
Precision Approach Radar
Section 10
(50 cards)
Outbound Destination
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
200 feet
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is:
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.
IM
Inner Marker
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
Date, place, bearing error, and signature
What are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment to be legal for IFR flight?
Annual - every 12 calendar months VOR - every 30 days for IFR 100 hour if airplane is for hire Altimeter/Pitot Static - 24 calendar months (for IFR) Transponder - 24 calendar months ELT - 12 calendar months or after 1 hr cumulative use or half life of battery Service bulletins and AD's complied with
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have
an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS
Where can you find the location of airborne, ground and VOT testing stations?
Chart Supplement
Runway Exit
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
Destination plus specific altitude and fix
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?
Six dots per second and a flashing white light
How long is your pilot certificate valid?
Your pilot certificate is issued without a specific expiration date
What does the symbol T within the black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published
Runway Safety Area / OFZ and Runway Approach Area Boundry
If a pilot allows their instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again?
If you fail to meet the instrument experience requirements for more than 6 months, the only way to reestablish currency is with an IPC (Instrument Proficiency Check)
Inbound Destination
Define "appropriately rated safety pilot"
Safety pilot must possess at least a private pilot certificate with the category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flow, and must have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.
HSI
Horizontal Situation Indicator
IM (Inner Marker)
A marker beacon used with an ILS (Cat II) precision approach located between the middle marker and the end of the ILS runway
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
Flight Service Station
WAAS
Wide Area Augmentation System
Information
RAIM
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
Direction: Taxiway
Taxiway Location
MM
Middle Marker
What are methods for checking accuracy of VOR equipment?
VOT Ground Check Airborne Airway Dual VOR
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
When advised by the tower
When the localizer fails, and ILS is:
NOT authorized
When the glide slope fails, the ILS reverts to a:
non precision localizer approach
What is an HSI?
The Horizontal Situation Indicator combines the functions of the heading indicator and the VOR receiver into one instrument display.
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
Airport Advisory Service
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
select another type of navigation and approach system
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?
Within the preceding 6 months of the flight, 6 instrument approaches and holding procedures and intercepting and tracking courses must be completed either in actual IMC in VMC whit
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
Airport Advisories
Identify the following symbol
Visual Descent Point (VDP) identifies a point at which a normal descent to a landing can be made at the TDZ.
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation
the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route
Runway Location
VFR and hand-held GPS systems are not authorized for:
IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a primary instrument flight reference
ILS Critical Area / POFZ Boundry
When is an instrument rating required?
In Class A Airspace, Operating under IFR, anytime the weather is beneath VFR minimums (Ceiling is below 1000' or visibility is less than 3 miles), Andy anytime you are operating special VFR at night
If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR
Taxiway Ending Marker
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as:
an aid to situational awareness
Mandatory: No entry
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DP's, STAR's and visual approaches
Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
Section 11
(50 cards)
The vacuum driven instruments are
Attitude and heading indicators
What is 'T'
Non-standard takeoff minimums
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?
265 knots
Parallel ILS Approaches provide aircraft a minimum of
1 1/2 miles of radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent Localizer course
Aircraft approach categories are based on
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
Visual decent point
Approach Lighting Configuration
Threshold Crossing Height
Assuming constant power, which instrument will give you an indirect indication of pitch attitude?
Altimeter
An outside mounted venturi
Sucks air through the vacuum instruments to spin the rotor
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
Which is true of STARS?
STARS are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on the course, the additional circuits can be made
ONLY if pilot advices ATC and ATC approves
Displaced Threshold
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
MOCA
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made:
only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
ACS
Airman Certification Standards
What are the different classes of VOR Stations?
VOR, VORTAC and VOR-DME
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
When radar vectors are provided
You're approaching LAX from the North on the 020 radial (200 course TO). What's the minimum safe altitude when you're within 25 NM?
7700 ft MSL
In straight and level flight, which instrument is primary for bank?
Heading Indicator
What would happen if the VOR station were undergoing maintenance?
It may translate a morse code of TEST, or the code may be removed entirely.
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within:
the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
In a constant rate climb, the primary pitch instrument is the:
VSI
How do you determine the VOR station is operating properly?
1. Tun the appropriate VOR frequency 2. Use the Ident. feature to listen to the morse code 3. Make sure the NAV warning flag is not in view.
What is the bold V
Visual decent point
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
What does it mean if there is only a single coded identification every 30 seconds on a VORTAC station?
The VOR function is not working, but the DME function is working
What are the ovals?
The runway has a displaced threshold
Off Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude
What are the fundamental skills that an instrument pilot must develop?
Instrument scan, instrument interpretation and airplane control.
VGSI
Visual Glide Slope Indicator
What are limitations of a VOR?
- Line of sight only - 'Cone of confusion' - Pilot Error - Failure to properly tune and identify, Failure to check for accurate signal, Reverse sensing
To ensure the proper airspace protection while holding at 5000 feet, what is the maximum indicated airspeed?
200 knots
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.
Basic radio communication - what are four W's?
Who your calling Who you are Where you are What you want
Why is the Seal Beach VOR frequency (115.7) underlined?
The underline means no voice is available, which means flight service would not be able to communicate to you through the VOR.
How much instrument time do you have to log in order to earn an instrument rating?
40 hours
Air Route Traffic Control Centers
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
All airplane maneuvers, done visually or on instruments, involve:
Controlling pitch, bank, and power.
Glide slope Intercept Altitude
What does the 'T' inside the triangle mean?
Airport has IFR takeoff Minimums and/or departure procedures
To eliminate the many problems inherent in an outside mounted Venturi:
Engineers developed the engine driven vacuum pump housed under the cowling AND the pressure pump was developed
How many degrees of deviation of each dot represent on a VOR?
Each dot represents 2 degrees of deviation.
Runway Slope
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later
Where is Pilot Briefing on a approach plate?
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding patter, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?
265 knots
Section 12
(50 cards)
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11 inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower Atmospheric pressure decreases roughly one inch for each 1000' in altitude. 30.11 - 29.96 - 0.15 0.15 x 1000 - 150'
To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying information must be entered?
Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot
What is approximate wind direction and speed directly over area 'A'
260 @ 15 kts gusting to 25kts
How long would it take to turn right from a heading of 90 degrees to a heading of 270 degrees, assuming you use the standard rate of turn?
1 Minute This would be a turn of 180 degrees. So divide 180 by 3 seconds. (180/3=60 seconds)
Approach Categories in the minimum section of the approach chart:
Divide aircraft. according to speed
What is the purpose of an ILS critical area marking sign?
That you are clear of the ILS critical area.
After takeoff you encounter a temperature inversion. You should expect:
Wind shear
A Non-Precision Approach is a:
Clearance to descend at a fix to a MDA and then on the MAP.
Cirrus clouds
Wispy, feathery clouds made of ice crystals that form at high levels.
Which OBS selection would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?
165 degrees
During a constant bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?
Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase
ATS
Air Traffic Service
An approach chart:
Can show colored contours in the Plan View
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
Why are STAR's established?
to simplify clearance delivery procedures
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway
1,200 feet AGL
When crossing a fix, use:
The Five T's - TIME, TURN, TWIST, THROTTLE, TALK
A 'CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
Wind shear can also be caused by:
Microbursts
At the beginning of a turn from a northerly heading:
The compass will show a turn in the opposite direction.
Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129 or TSO-C196. Your destination is below minimums for the GPS RNAV approach and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that
GPS units certified under TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 are not authorized for alternate approach requirements; subsequently, you must use an approach procedure based on a conventional ground-based system.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degree glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed increases, rate of decent must increase
Where is Plan View on approach plate?
What is freezing temp?
0 degrees Celsius
Cumulus clouds
ALS
Approach Light System
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank
Wind shear turbulence aloft, not associated with clouds is called
Clear air turbulence (CAT)
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.
What are the components of an approach chart?
Pilot Briefing, Plan View, Profile View, Minimums
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you expect
Sudden increases of wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least one minute
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
An intercept to an outbound course is usually made at:
A 30 or 45 degree angle
In extreme turbulence, the airplane is
Practically impossible to control
APU
Auxiliary Power Unit
OIS
Obstacle Identification Services
Airport elevation is the elevation MSL measured at:
The touchdown zone (TDZ) of the runway depicted on the chart.
AGL
Above Ground Level
When checking your altimeter for accuracy, it must be:
Within +/- 75 feet of the airport elevation
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of:
200 feet per nautical mile
Where are Minimums on approach plate?
What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?
4 NM
What is the standard lapse rate?
2 degrees Celsius per 1000'
ASR
Approach Surveillance Radar
A clearance for an instrument approach is:
Authorization to follow the prescribed instrument approach procedure, and descend to the MDA or DA/H, and fly the published missed approach procedure.
Rotor cloud
a closed, vertical circulation that develops in high mountain barriers, or in the valley between two mountain ranges.
FAF (Final Approach Fix)
Section 13
(50 cards)
LOM
Compass Locator at Outer Marker
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
MAA
Maximum Authorized IFR altitude
IAS
Indicated Airspeed
EFVS
Enhanced Flight Vision System
RBN
Radio Beacon
RAIL
Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
Stratus Cloud
Have little or no up or down drafts,
NDB
Non-Directional Beacon
RR
low or medium frequency radio range station
IM
ILS Inner Marker
CAS
Calibrated Airspeed
LMM
Compass Locator at Middle Marker
LOC
ILS Localizer
GS
Glide Slope
What are the yellow lines?
Fog
RNAV
Area Navigation (RNAV) provides enhanced navigational capability to the pilot.
SALS
Short Approach Light System
TACAN
ultra-high frequency tactical air navigational aid
A primary cause of turbulence is
Wind shear
OM
Outer Marker
LDA
Localizer-type Directional Aid
MSL
Mean Sea Level
RCLS
Runway Centerline Light System
NOPT
No procedure turn required
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
IFSD
In-flight Shutdown
PAR
Precision Approach Radar
FTD
Flight Training Device
DME
Distance Measuring Equipment
Under which condition does advection fog usually form?
Moist air moving over colder air or water
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion ?
A stable layer of air
INT
Intersection
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude
MALSR
Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
MALS
Medium Intensity Approach Light System
MDA
Minimum Descent Altitude
ILS
Instrument Landing System
CAMP
Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance Program
What are the layers of the atmosphere beginning at the earths surface?
Troposphere, Stratosphere, mesosphere
RVR
Runway Visual Range
The HSI is a combination of:
A heading indicator, OBS, and CDI
MM
ILS Middle Marker
EAS
Equivalent Airspeed
MEA
Minimum En Route IFR Altitude
RCLM
Runway Centerline Marking
MEL
Minimum Equipment List
HIRL
High-Intensity Runway Light System
Clouds, dew and fog will always form when
Water vapor condenses
Section 14
(50 cards)
TSO
Technical Standard Order
OIS
Obstacle Identification Surface
Which instrument is effected if the pitot tube is blocked?
Airspeed indicator
The part of the glide slope that intersects the localizer is called the:
Glidepath
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
Listening on two PRM frequencies, a tower PRM frequency and a final controller PRM frequency
RVR (Runway Visual Range)
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
Icing can
Increase drag by more than 100%
In order to fly an RNAV route:
You must have an IFR approved GPS
The surface temperature of an airplane:
Increases with airspeed
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
200 feet
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air
Which feature is associated with the tropopause ?
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
Advection fog is most likely to occur in:
Coastal areas
LFR
Low-frequency Radio Range
PRM
Precision Runway Monitoring
What is the average lapse rate?
2 degrees per 1000 feet
Why is frost hazardous to flight?
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift
DH
Decision Height
What is freezing temperature?
0 degrees celcius
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
An upsloping runway
TAS
True Airspeed
On a 500mb chart, the wind:
Parallels the contour lines
Where does advection fog mostly form?
On coastal areas
What is symbol?
Height of tropopause
Clouds, dew or fog will always form when:
Water vapor condenses
If you encounter ice:
Disengage auto-Pilot and hand fly
TVOR
Very high frequency terminal omnirange station
A constant pressure chart includes:
- height and temp/dew point spread - temperature and wind speed
Which instrument is connected to the pitot tube?
Airspeed indicator
Which clouds have the most turbulence?
Cumulonimbus
What are the four icing values?
Trace, light, moderate, severe
Compass Locator
Non-directional beacon co-located with an outer marker beacon
TCAS
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
Where might ice first occur on an airplanes surface?
Tailplane
Flight Manual Supplement
An FAA-approved document that contains information (operating limitations, operating procedures, performance information, etc.) necessary to operate the airplane at the level of safety established by the airplane's certification basis.
Tailplane ice will cause plane to
Pitch down
An open-headed arrow pointer indicates
DME distance, as well as azimuth
Any deviation from the glide path, less than half scale, should be corrected by making:
Pitch changes only
If you encounter ice in a light airplane, you should
Make a 180 degree turn back to where there was no ice
An ILS is categorized by:
Decision height and flight visibility
High Altitude Airways are called
High Altitude Airways
TDZL
Touchdown Zone Lights
What are types of icing?
Clear Rime Mixed
Characteristics of stable air:
Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds
Flying in icing will likely mean:
Turbulence
Ambient Lapse Rate
Rate of decrease in temperature with altitude
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing?
High clouds
Instruments that rely on pitot and/or static systems
Altimeter, VSI, airspeed
In considering the conditions aloft, the pressure altitude chart most often referred to is the:
500 millibar chart
RAIM
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is a technology developed to assess the integrity of global positioning system signals in a GPS receiver system. It is of special importance in safety-critical GPS applications.
Section 15
(50 cards)
If your aircraft has a Mode C, Mode S or ADSB out transponder the controller can see:
Your altitude
ARTCC
Air Route Traffic Control Center
T Routes are:
Low Altitude RNAV Routes
Vacuum driven instruments are:
Attitude Indicator and Heading Indicator
The area of the thunderstorm with the greatest amount of turbulence is found:
Around the outside of the thunderstorm
At a altitude of 6,500 ft MSL, the currenr altimeter setting is 30.42"Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximely.
6,000 ft
horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal
In a coordinated turn
A MOCA guarantees
VOR signal reception within 22 miles of station
Aircraft approach categories are based on:
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight
An outside mounted Venturi
Sucks air out of the vacuum instrument cases
Regardless of weather conditions, an instrument rating is required in class
"A" airspace
Weather conditions expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer, when the relative humidity is high
Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze or low clouds
What is the difference between ADS-B In and ADS-B Out?
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air.
Airman's Certification Standards (ACS)
FAA guidance that lists subject matter covered in the instrument rating knowledge tests and the performance standards for the practical tests
In straight and level flight, which instrument is primary for bank?
Heading Indicator
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
INCREASE and true altitude will increase
The three requirements for a thunderstorm to form are:
Lifting action Instability Moisture
Localizer
What is width of an airway?
4nm on either side, total 8nm
VOT
VOR test facility
It is fairly common for
Weather conditions to change quickly after rain moves through an area
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are:
Airspeed, Air Density, Wing Design, and Angle of Attack
You must have an ATC Clearance to fly a:
SID
In rolling out of a turn, to be sure the turn has stopped, refer to the
Heading indicator
Non standard takeoff Minimums
Feature associated with tropopause
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
VOR
ODP
Obstacle Departure Procedure
The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earths surface
Troposphere, stratosphere, Mesosphere
DER
Departure End of Runway
What instruments are vacuum driven?
Attitude and Heading Indicator
Assuming constant power, which instrument will give you an indirect indication of pitch?
Altimeter
RVR
Runway Visual Range - Machine measured horizontal visibility near the approach end of the runway
Glideslope
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF
ODALS
When ATC gives you an altitude change:
Climb or descend at an optimum rate for your airplanes operating characteristics
A thunderstorms gust front can extend over:
15-20 miles out in front of a strong storm
What course of action should you make when making a lot of pitch changes in considerable turbulence?
Don't try to trim the airplane for each pitch change
At some terminal areas, many Victor airways have been eliminated in order to
Have most pilots go around the area ( to prevent traffic congestion)
For thunderstorm avoidance:
Stay 5-20 miles away, depending on the size of the thunderstorm.
Outer Marker (OM)
Radiation fog
Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface
Altimeter must read within
75 feet of ground elevation
Airman Certification Standards (ACS)
FAA guidance lists subject matter covered on the instrument rating knowledge test and performance standards for the practical test.
Embedded thunderstorms are often found:
In warm or stationary frontal zones
What is the initial primary bank instrument, when establishing a level standard-rate turn?
Attitude indicator
AHRS
Attitude Heading Reference System
when using a VOT, to test a dual VOR system, what indication is acceptable?
176 degrees TO and 003 degrees FROM, respectively ( which are within 4 degrees )
Section 16
(50 cards)
ILS Critical Area
What is TCAS?
Skidding Turn
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible
what causes an airplane to turn?
Horizontal Lift Component
ALSF-2
In mountainous area, where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below
2000 feet above the highest obstacle
What minimum aircraft equipment is required while flying IFR in Class C airpace?
Two-way radio communications and Mode C transponder
Which rules apply to the PIC when operating on a VFR on top clearance?
VFR and IFR
Under Basic Med - can you CANNOT
fly above 18,000 MSL
How can a pilot determine if a GPS system is insalled in an aircraft approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
Flight manual supplement
Airmet's are valid for:
6 hours
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
DECREASING airspeed and INCREASING the bank
VFR on top is prohibited
In Class A Airspace
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace
Purpose of FDC Notams
Advice of changes in flight data which affect IAP aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication
SID
NA
Not authorized
Durning flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, what would be affected?
Airspeed Indicator
Airways are:
8 NM wide ( 4nm each side )
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least
a slip skid indicator
DP
Departure Procedure
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding airspace at or below 2,500 ft AGL, an operable transponder equipped with Mode C capabilityis required in all control airspace at and above
10,000 ft MSL
When VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on:
Magnetic Course
Composite flight plan
IFR/VFR
ODP
High altitude airways are called
Jet routes
What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3?
RVR
Runway Visual Range
Carrying passengers for hire on night VFR flight in single engine within 25 mile radius of departure airport, requires:
Commercial Pilot Certificate with single engine and IFR rating
In a constant rate climb, the primary pitch instrument is
Vertical Speed Indicator
Critical event on approach to landing in turbulent air
DECREASE in airspeed, and INCREASE in decent rate
What is a SID?
Standard Instrument Departure
Non-Standard takeoff Minimums
SKC
Sky Clear
A commercial pilot without an instrument rating may carry passengers
on a cross-country flight up to 50 nm, but NIGHT flights are prohibited with passengers for hire
in an autopilot system, what device actually moves the control surfaces?
Servo
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within B Airspace?
A request made to ATC 1 hour before the flight
Maxiumum cabin pressure altitude without supplemental oxygen over 30 minutes
12,500 feet
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because:
verticle component of lift has DECREASED as a result of the bank
What is the purpose of the ILS critical area marking sign?
That you are clear of the ILS critical area
A pilot with Basic Med can act as PIC under IFR
When the PIC is instrument rated and current
SIAP
Standard Instrument Approach Procedure
Rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain
2000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM of course
When rolling out of a timed turn, for minor heading adjustments, use the
Compass
EFC
Expect Further Clearance
MALSR
Hydroplaning most likely occurs
Standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture
8000'
Standard Takeoff Minimums For Hire
Section 17
(50 cards)
If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must
convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility
Lost Radio
Squawk 7600
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
10 degrees
ATC gives clearance 'Cruise six thousand' - meaning:
Operate anywhere from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control
Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?
Attitude Indicator and Turn Cordinator
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Cross-check Instrument interpretation aircraft control
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately
10% of the vertical speed
The primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed
Airspeed Indicator
To enter a constant airspeed decent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed:
simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the altitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right
CDI
Course Deviation Indicator
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a:
climb
Which condition during taxi is an indication that the attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5 degrees while making taxi turns
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
The pull of the vertical component of the earths magnetic field
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090 deg to a heading of 300 deg?
50 seconds A standard rate turn is 3 degrees per second 090 to 300 = 150 degrees 150 deg / 3 deg per sec = 50 seconds
A Transponder is not required in
Class D airspace
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
descent
To level off from a decent maintaining the decending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approxmately
50 feet
Which instrument, in a primary-secondary relationship, is the primary instrument for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
Heading indicator
While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or decleration forces as a sensation of
climbing or decending
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180 degrees?
1 minute A standard rate turn takes 2 minutes for a 360, so a half of that woul be 180, so half the time, equals 1 minute
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are PITCH instruments?
Altimeter, airspeed indicator, VSI
Half standard rate turn is:
1.5 degrees per second
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Altimeter, Airspeed indicator and VSI
Approxmately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?
10 percent
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass would
swing freely and indicate known headings
For maintaing level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude indicator
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
altimeter and airspeed stabilize
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instrument should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?
Airspeed and Altimeter
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360 degrees?
4 minutes If a standard rate turn takes 2 minutes to execute a full 360, then a half standard rate turn would take 4 min to do a 360
Runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions would be found in:
Distant (D) Notams
In straight and level instrument flight using a primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?
Altimeter
What antular deviation from a VOR course cenrerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?
5 degrees
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 deg turn, with a bank of approx 15 degrees?
90 degrees and 270 degress
Runway Holding Position Sign
The miniature airplane on the turn coordinator will indicate
rate of roll and rate of turn
To level off at an airspeed higher than the decent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of decent, at approximately
100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the
minimums specified for the approach procedure selected
Altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
half bar width on the attitude indictor
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
3NM (each dot equals 2 degrees deflection, so 3 dots equals 6 degrees deflection)
Standard rate turn
3 degrees per second
What point should be used to computer estimated time enroute on an IFR flight plan?
The point of first intended landing
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills in instrument flying?
Cross-check, Instrument interpretation, and aircraft control
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
aircraft control
Class A Airspace
18000 ft to and including FL600
Section 18
(50 cards)
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing
Which instrument, in a primary-secondary relationship, is the primary instrument for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
heading indicator
VFR Day Instruments and Equipment requirements
Tachometer Oil pressure gauge Magnetic Compass Air Speed Indicator Temperature Gauge Oil Temp Gauge Fuel Gauges Landing gear position lights Altimeter Manifold Pressure Gauges ELT Seat Belts
Required Documents for Aircraft
Airworthiness Certificate Registration Radio License Owners Manuual Weight and Balance
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise
Aircraft Airworthiness
Annual Inspection VOR checks every 30 days 100 hour inspections (for hire only) AD's Transponder - 24 months ELT - 12 months
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the VSI indicates a descent of 100 feet per min, in this case you
may take off under IFR and use 100 ft descent as the zero indication
Where does wind shear occur?
With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
When MUST you file an alternate?
Always, except within 1 hour before ETA to 1 hour after ETA, the weather is forecasted to be 2000' and 3 miles visibility If your airport of intended landing ONLY has a GPS approach, you MUST file an alternate
In extreme turbulence, the airplane
Is practically impossible to control
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL in Class E airspace under special VFR during daylight hours?
1 mile and clear of clouds
What is the maxiumum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
12,500 feet
If both theram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
15,000 ft
What are standard alternate minimums for NON-PRECISION APPROACH?
800' and 2 miles visibility at ETA
Embedded thunderstorms are often found:
In WARM or STATIONARY frontal zones
What are standard alternate mimimums for VISUAL APPROACH?
decent from MEA and approach and landing done in VFR conditions (forecasted ceiling greater than MEA)
In straight and level instrument flight using primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?
Altimeter
Must know for Flight
NOTAMS Weather Known Traffic Delays Runway Lengths Alternates if needed Fuel Requirements (including alternate) Takeoff/Landing Distances
What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?
Current Notam (D) and FDC Notams
To act as PIC of a civil aircraft under IFR
pilot must have current medical and IFR rating
Go Around / Missed Approach
Cram Climb Clean Cool Call
5's for HOLDING
Turn Time Twist Throttle Talk
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
On tower frequency
During an ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will
increase as the ground speed increases
Lost Procedures
Climb Call / Communicate Confess Comply Conserve
VFR Night
Fuses Landing Ligt Anti-Collision Lights Position Lights Source of Electrical Power
Instrument Requirements
Generator/Alternator Radio (2 way comm and nav) Altimeter Ball Clock with second hand Attitude Indicator Rate of Turn Indicator Directional Gyro DME above 24000'
Safety pilot requirements
Must be rated in same category and class of aircraft, have current medical and private pilot certificate
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maxiumum error allowed for IFR flight?
Plus or minus 6 degrees of the designated radial
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
in lieu of conducting a SIAP
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation
During a constant bank level turn, what effet would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?
Rate of turn would DECREASE, and radius of turn would INCREASE
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given
Fundamental Skills of Instrument Flying
Instrument Cross Check Instrument Interpretation Aircraft Control
What are standard alternate minimums? for PRECISION APPROACH
600' and 2 miles visiblity at ETA
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors
Test data indicates that ice, snow or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or course sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can
reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent
Night currency
3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop, 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise in same category, class and type if its required
Acceleration errors
Accelerate North Decelerate South
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the PIC must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including
the runway lenths at airports of intended use, and the aircrafts takeoff and landing data.
Logging instrument time
a person may login instrument time only for the flight when the person operates soley by reference to instruments under ACTUAL or SIMULATED instrument flight conditions.
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the LEAST appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude Indicator
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
water vapor condenses
When can instructor log instrument time with student?
when conducting instrument flight instructions in ACTUAL instrument conditions
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected using a
half bar width on the attitude indicator
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
Provides optimal routing and altitudes
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3 degree glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase
Under which condition must the PIC of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan
What are standard alternate minimums for NON-STANDARD approach?
front pages of NOS, on airport diagrams in JEPP plates
Section 19
(50 cards)
What type of clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?
Clouds with extensive vertical development
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates
designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent would be used?
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?
One or more miles from each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility
Which meteorlogical condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?
Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3,000 sq miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.
You have completed your BasicMed requirements and plan on flying your friends to a football game. What is the maximum amount of passengers you can bring along?
5 people
Wind shear turbulence aloft, not associated with clouds, is called:
Clear air turbulence
To remain on the ILS glide path, the rate of descent must be
increased if GROUND SPEED is increased
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090 deg to a heading of 180 deg?
1 minute
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative
What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS of 128 kts o a flight planned altitude of 5,000' if the outside air temperatur is +05 deg Celcius?
119 KCAS
What CAS must be used to maintain 156 KTS at a flight planned altitude of 11,000' if the outside air temp is +05 deg C?
129 KTS
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
If VMC outside Class A airspace
Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g. runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?
Airport Facility Directory and DISTANT (D) NOTAM'S
In straight and level flight, which instrument is primary for bank?
Heading indicator
Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?
Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3,000 sq miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?
1,200 Feet AGL
When operating under IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifical force, and load factor?
Centrificial force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
The surface analysis chart depicts
actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway?
An upsloping runway
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
INCREASE the angle of bank and/or DECREASE the angle of attack
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?
265 knots
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
DECREASING airspeed and INCREASING the bank
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of roll and rate of turn
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in loss of lift
Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A Airspace?
60,000 feet MSL
Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)
3 degrees per feet
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifical force as a sensation of :
rising or falling
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
180 degree turn
What is expected of you as a pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
INCREASE the angle of bank and/or DECREASE the angle of attack
Which Altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
2,500 AGL
While operating under Basic Med, the pilot in command must have visited their primary care physician within the preceding:
48 calendar months
What portion of dual instruction time may a certified instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
All time which the instructor acts as an instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
1
In order to be eligible for BasicMed privileges, the pilot in command must:
Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after April 1, 2016
While simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
On tower frequency
While operating under BasicMed, the PIC must have visited their primary care physician within the preceding:
48 calendar months
What should the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or weather reporting station?
Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg and read the altitude indicated.
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be:
HIGHER than actual, leading to a LOWER than normal approach
To maintain Basic Med privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding
24 calendar months
Section 20
(50 cards)
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
When leaving final approach fix in bound on the final approach.
When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 DEGREES
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5 degrees while making taxi turns
Atmospheric pressure decreases roughly 1" per
1000' increase in altitude
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
CLIMB
For a dual VOR check, the acceptable tolerance is
4 degrees between two VOR's
090
If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135 degrees?
1 minute 30 seconds
Frontal waves normally form on
slow moving COLD FRONTS or stationary fronts
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
REIL
Which atmospheric layer is typified by a relatively small change in temperature?
Stratosphere
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility
How can you tell if a DME is not working?
The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the LEFT?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the RIGHT.
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?
4 degrees between the two indicated radials of a VOR
What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?
4NM
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate static source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following would the pilot expect?
The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb
If a 180 degree steep turn is made to the right and an aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
may show a slight CLIMB and TURN
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
removal of the identification feature. VOR stations are identified by their Morse code or voice identifier. If the station is undergoing maintenance, the coded identifier should be off.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left for a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the RIGHT
What affect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach
You are planning to go on a trip with friends to Canada. You're the PIC and your operating under BasicMed. Can you go?
No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States and Bahamas.
When an aircraft is decelerated, some altitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
DESCENT
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace
at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
PILOT DISORIENTATION
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the:
amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive clearance before
entering Class E airspace
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect indication of the bank attitude
ATC has approved your request for VFR on top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore you:
must fly the appropriate VFR altitudes
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected?
No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
TRUE altitude at field elevation
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?
1,200 feet AGL
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glide paths?
If the aircraft is below both glide paths all lights will appear red.
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?
Horizontal lift and Centrifugal force are EQUAL
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?
Centrifugal force is GREATER than the horizontal lift and the load factor is INCREASED
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.
In order to be eligible for BasicMed privileges, the pilot in command must:
Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after July 14, 2006.
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communication failure?
Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI
In order to operate IFR in Class B airspace, you must have a
Working VOR, TACAN or operable and suitable area navigation system
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
SIMULTANEOUSLY reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed
What is the PIC's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160?
Reduce IAS to 160 kts and maintain that speed within 10 knots
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonreader departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
During a flight, the controller advises 'traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound'. The pilot is holding 20 degrees correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for traffic?
40 degrees to the right of the aircrafts nose
A crew flying a small jet cross a cold front in IMC and notice the temperatures begin dropping to near freezing. They begin to encounter moderate rain in the clouds. The crew should be concerned about what weather phenomenon?
CLEAR icing - temperatures close to freezing point, large amounts of liquid water, high aircraft velocities, and large droplets are conducive to the formation of clear ice.
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approaxh
What is meant when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
You should maintain the airway by use of your NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT
What conclusion can be drawn from a 500 milli-bar Constant Pressure Chart for the planned flight of FL180?
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
When OVER or ABEAM the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
Section 21
(50 cards)
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station, The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
3 NM
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
Attitude indicator, altimeter and VSI
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.
Aircraft operating under IFR with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for enroute navigation must also have installed
the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route.
370/XXX
identifies a layer of turbulence from below FL240 to FL370
What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
It defines areas of slight, moderate, and high risk of severe and general thunderstorm activity.
During an ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glideslop will
INCREASE as the ground speed INCREASES
A contact approach is an approach procedure that many be used
in lieu of conducting a SIAP
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
Sudden increases of wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute
ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it?
level at two one zero
MOAs are established to
separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
Flight Manual Supplement
dry adiabetic lapse rate
3 deg / 1000 ft
When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum. Altitude you should cros BZN is
10,200
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
The carrying of passengers for hire on a cross-country flight is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above:
The standard datum plane.
What conclusion do you draw from this METAR observation?
The air has reached the point of 100% saturation.
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
an approved OPERATIONAL INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE other than GPS
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the RIGHT from a SOUTH heading?
The compass will indicate a turn to the RIGHT, but at a FASTER rate than is actually occuring.
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved non-WASS GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
Must be operational along the entire route
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a LOWER approach.
Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?
Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time on the chart.
What does the '122.2' over Livingston VOR/DME NAVAID information box refer to?
Great Falls RCO Frequency
Your onboard GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129 or TSO-C196. Your destination is below minimums for the GPS RNAV approach and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that
After DIVERTING to an alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light
Dry adiabatic lapse rate
3 degrees C per 1000 feet
Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
Localizer and glide slope, DME and no voice capability.
When not in radar contact, you should always report
departing the FAF inbound (meaning when leaving the final approach)
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when
airspeed and altimeter STOP their movement and the VSI reverses its trend
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?
Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are EQUAL
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
the 1-minute limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The altimeter will read HIGHER than normal, airspeed GREATER than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a CLIMB
The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation 'F'?
South of the waypoint, 180 degrees bearing FROM the waypoint.
What is the primary pitch instrument during a STABILIZED CLIMBING LEFT TURN at cruise climb airspeed?
Airspeed Indicator
You are over Seal Beach VOR and have been cleared for the ILS RWY 9 at Riverside Muni. How should you proceed?
Fly to JASER, decent to 2,500 feet and intercept the glide slope.
Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level
What is the procedure for receiving a clearance for a 'side-step' maneuver for landing?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
Maximum altitude that Class G will exist
14,500 ft MSL
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet FT 3000. 6000. 39000 OKC 830558
Wind 330 at 105 kts, temp -58 deg C Since the first two digits on 830558 is between 51 and 86, that means the wind speed is greater than 100kts, and the conversion of the wind is done by subtracting 50. So 83-50=330 degrees. The wind speed is plus the next two digits, so 100 + 05 = 105 kts. * Temperature is always negative above 24,000' *
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
With a WARM front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is:
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator ?
Rate of roll and rate of turn
What does VFR-on-top permit you to do?
Fly a different altitude than what is assigned by ATC.
The altitude restriction in your IFR clearance is to 'CRUISE 7,000 FEET'. There is a 5,000 foot MEA on your filed airway. What altitude may you use?
Any intermediate altitude within this BLOCK of airspace.
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
5 degrees
You have an IFR clearance and operating VFR-on-Top in a nonradar environment. You will
make position reports.
Moderate turbulence from below 24,000 MSL to 37,000 MSL
If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NAVAIDs should be.
80nm
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
200 NM
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude)
Section 22
(50 cards)
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
1 hour 50 minutes Clue: the flight crew doesn't have to use supplemental oxygen for first 30 min at that altitude, so they have to use oxygen the remainder. So 2:20 - 30 min = 1 hr 50 min
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower
When the marker beacon shows a blue light with tones of all dashes on an ILS approach, this indicates you are
near glide slope intercept
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable
You are flying IFR in an aircraft equipped with GPS (no WAAS). Your destination airport requires GPS. Any alternate airport must have an instrument approach procedure
that is not GPS based.
What is MCA on V187 Southbound?
6500'
You are inbound to your destination landing. You listen to ATIS and notice that it has not been updated in over an hour. You decide that
since it has been nearly an hour, check back in a moment because it is likely being updated now.
Static port
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns
ONE-HALF Standard Rate
What are typical 'ATIS' hours?
Who owns ATIS? Typically the TOWER, so time is same for ATIS and TOWER
ARTCC
Air Route Traffic Control Center
Symbol specifies daylight savings time
CLUE: do not convert when seeing this symbol on IFR test!
RCO
Remote Communications Outlet
What is maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly without using supplemental oxygen over 30 minutes?
12,500
Hot spots - dangerous areas of airport
VFR on Top
MUST be requested by the pilot
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
15,000 feet
Parallell ILS approaches provide
a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
The pilot must request a contact approach, the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
Runway Remaining
While cruising at 160 kts, you want to establish a climb at 130 kts. When entering the climb, it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb,
RMI
Radio Magnetic Indicator
When operating under IFR, you must track the centerline of an ATC assigned airway except
for shallow clearing turns while climbing in VMC
Contact Approach
Pilot MUST request a Contact Approach
What colors are runway holding position signs?
White with a red background
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane wing?
Decreased angle of attack for stalls
Flight Service Station (FSS) Common Frequency is
122.2
Compulsory Reporting Point
Must report fixes that define the route
During normal operation of a vacuum driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out of a 180 degree skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?
The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the opposite direction the skid
When flying in an unpressurized aircraft at 16,000 feet MSL, what are the oxygen requirements?
Above 14,000 feet, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen.
Taxiway Ending Marker
A standard IFR ATC Climb gradient is
200ft per NM
Which feature is associated with the tropopause ?
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate (closest to earth, where all the weather occurs)
What frequency would you use for regional approach control?
133.62
What is a TACAN
A Contact Approach is an approach procedure that may be used
in lieu of conducting a SIAP
Abbreviated Clearance
An abbreviated IFR departure clearance will include at least the destination airport, altitude, along with DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. The abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
STAR's are established to
simplify clearance delivery procedures
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be
INCREASED if the ground speed is INCREASED
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
Date, place, bearing error, and signature
How will a blocked static port affect the VSI?
A blocked static port will cause the altimeter to freeze at a constant value, the altitude at which the static port became blocked. The vertical speed indicator will read zero and will not change at all, even if vertical speed increases or decreases.
What are the supplemental oxygen requirements of an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
The CREW must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet.
Which points are designated fly-over waypoints?
RW30
MOAs are established to
separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
What is the function of the Great Falls RCO?
Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS
Class G airspace is that airspace where
ATC does not control air traffic
Use of a STAR requires at least a
textual description
"No-Gyro"
loss of gyroscopic system
Section 23
(36 cards)