Section 1
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____ 3. The set of possible values for an attribute is a ____. a. domain c. set b. range d. key
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Section 1
(50 cards)
____ 3. The set of possible values for an attribute is a ____. a. domain c. set b. range d. key
a. domain
____ 7. The ____ attribute(s) make up the primary key in the table definition: CLASS (CRS_CODE, CLASS_SECTION, CLASS_TIME, CLASS_ROOM, PROF_NUM) a. CRS_CODE c. CRS_CODE and CLASS_SECTION b. CLASS_SECTION d. There is no primary key
c. CRS_CODE and CLASS_SECTION
____ 17. A relationship is an association between ____. a. objects c. databases b. entities d. fields
b. entities
____ 29. A(n) ____ entity is composed of the primary keys of each of the entities to be connected. a. associative c. unary b. recursive d. binary
a. associative
____ 2. Attributes may share a ____. a. name c. location b. domain d. table
b. domain
____ 13. Although the conceptual model can handle ____ relationhips and multivalued attribues, you should not implement them in the RDBMS. a. 1:1 c. 1:M b. M:N d. 1:N
b. M:N
____ 44. A(n) ____ exists when there are functional dependencies such that Y is functionally dependent on X and Z is functionally dependent on Y, and X is the primary key. a. partial dependency c. atomic attribute b. repeating group d. transitive dependency
d. transitive dependency
____ 8. A ____ attribute can be further subdivided to yield additional attributes. a. composite c. single-valued b. simple d. multivalued
a. composite
____ 47. A relational table must not contain a(n) ____. a. entity c. relationship b. attribute d. repeating group
d. repeating group
____ 42. Some very specialized applications may require normalization beyond the ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
d. 4NF
____ 15. A derived attribute ____. a. must be stored physically within the database b. need not be physically stored within the database c. has many values d. must be based on the value of three or more attributes
b. need not be physically stored within the database
____ 27. The Crow’s foot symbol with two parallel lines indicates ____ cardinality. a. (0,N) c. (1,1) b. (1,N) d. (0,1)
c. (1,1)
____ 21. An entity is said to be ____-dependent if it can exist in the database only when it is associated with another related entity occurrence. a. existence c. business b. relationship d. weak
a. existence
____ 37. From a structural point of view, 2NF is better than ____. a. 1NF c. 4NF b. 3NF d. BCNF
a. 1NF
____ 32. The M:N relationship between STUDENT and CLASS must be divided into two 1:M relationships through the use of the ENROLL entity; the ENROLL entity is ____. a. weak c. optional b. strong d. mandatory
a. weak
____ 10. A ____ attribute can have only one value. a. composite c. single-valued b. simple d. multivalued
c. single-valued
____ 12. Some attributes are classified as ____. a. simple c. defined b. complex d. grouped
a. simple
____ 46. A ____ derives its name from the fact that a group of multiple entries of the same type can exist for any single key attribute occurrence. a. partial dependency c. repeating group b. transitive dependency d. primary key
c. repeating group
____ 33. If the focus is on data-retrieval speed, you might also be forced to include ____ attributes in the design, which would not ordinarily be done. a. multivalued c. weak b. composite d. derived
d. derived
____ 43. Of the following normal forms, ____ is mostly of theoretical interest. a. 1NF c. BCNF b. 3NF d. DKNF
d. DKNF
____ 48. Dependencies based on only a part of a composite primary key are called ____ dependencies. a. primary c. incomplete b. partial d. composite
b. partial
____ 28. If an employee within an EMPLOYEE entity has a relationship with itself, that relationship is known as a ____ relationship. a. self c. looping b. self-referring d. recursive
d. recursive
____ 6. A ____ identifier is composed of more than one attribute. a. primary c. composite b. foreign d. domain
c. composite
____ 36. 1NF, 2NF, and 3NF are ____. a. normalization stages c. repeating groups b. anomalies d. atomic attributes
a. normalization stages
____ 1. Some ____ database modeling concepts can be expressed only using the Chen notation. a. developmental c. actual b. conceptual d. specific
b. conceptual
____ 18. Knowing the ____ number of entity occurrences is very helpful at the application software level. a. maximum c. approximate b. minimum d. maximum and minimum
d. maximum and minimum
____ 20. Another word for existence-independent is ____. a. weak c. unary b. alone d. strong
d. strong
____ 11. ____ attributes can have many values. a. Composite c. Single-valued b. Simple d. Multivalued
d. Multivalued
____ 5. Ideally, an entity identifier is composed of ____ attribute(s). a. zero c. two b. one d. six
b. one
____ 50. A table that has all key attributes defined, has no repeating groups, and all its attributes are dependent on the primary key, is said to be in ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
a. 1NF
____ 22. If an entity can exist apart from one or more related entities, it is said to be ____-independent. a. existence c. business b. relationship d. weak
a. existence
____ 14. A ____ should be a derived attribute. a. person’s name c. person’s social security number b. person’s age d. person’s phone number
b. person’s age
____ 19. In the ERD, cardinality is indicated using the ____ notation. a. (max, min) c. [min ... max] b. (min, max) d. {min]max}
b. (min, max)
____ 45. Attribute A ____ attribute B if all of the rows in the table that agree in value for attribute A also agree in value for attribute B. a. determines c. controls b. derives from d. owns
a. determines
____ 34. Complex ____ requirements may dictate data transformations, and they may expand the number of entities and attributes within the design. a. information c. design b. entity d. processing
a. information
____ 30. The following step occurs first in the process of building an ERD: ____. a. Develop the initial ERD. b. Create a detailed narrative of the organization’s description of operations. c. Identify the attributes and primary keys that adequately describe the entities. d. Identify the business rules based on the description of operations.
b. Create a detailed narrative of the organization’s description of operations.
____ 31. If Tiny College had some departments that were classified as “research only,” they would not offer courses; therefore, the COURSE entity would be ____ to the DEPARTMENT entity. a. existence-dependent c. weak b. independent d. optional
d. optional
____ 38. ____ yields better performance. a. Denormalization c. Atomization b. Normalization d. Compression
a. Denormalization
____ 39. An attribute that is part of a key is known as a(n) ____ attribute. a. important c. prime b. nonprime d. entity
c. prime
____ 35. Normalization works through a series of stages called normal forms. For most purposes in business database design, ____ stages are as high as you need to go in the normalization process. a. two c. four b. three d. five
b. three
____ 26. The existence of a(n) ____ relationship indicates that the minimum cardinality is at least 1 for the mandatory entity. a. mandatory c. multivalued b. optional d. single-valued
a. mandatory
____ 16. A derived attribute is indicated in the Chen model by a ____. a. single line c. circle b. dashed line d. double line
b. dashed line
____ 24. A ____ entity has a primary key that is partially or totally derived from the parent entity in the relationship. a. strong c. business b. weak d. relationship
weak
____ 49. In a(n) ____ diagram, the arrows above the attributes indicate all desirable dependencies. a. Chen c. functionality b. dependency d. ER
b. dependency
____ 40. A table that displays data redundancies yields ____. a. consistencies c. fewer attributes b. anomalies d. more entities
b. anomalies
____ 9. A ____ attribute is one that cannot be subdivided. a. composite c. single-valued b. simple d. multivalued
b. simple
____ 4. In an ER diagram, primary keys are indicated by ____. a. bolding c. underlining b. italics d. a special font
c. underlining
____ 41. Data redundancy produces ____. a. slower lookups c. efficient storage use b. robust design d. data integrity problems
d. data integrity problems
____ 25. The term “____” is used to label any condition in which one or more optional relationships exist. a. participation c. cardinality b. optionality d. connectivity
b. optionality
____ 23. When the PK of one entity does not contain the PK of a related entity, the relationship is ____. a. missing c. strong b. weak d. neutral
b. weak
Section 2
(50 cards)
____ 95. The ____ statement in SQL combines rows from two queries and returns only the rows that appear in the first set but not in the second. a. UNION c. INTERSECT b. UNION ALL d. MINUS
d. MINUS
____ 72. An example of denormalization is using a ____ denormalized table to hold report data. This is required when creating a tabular report in which the columns represent data that is stored in the table as rows. a. transitive c. component b. 3NF d. temporary
d. temporary
____ 85. In subquery terminology, the first query in the SQL statement is known as the ____ query. a. outer c. inner b. left d. base
a. outer
____ 100. A(n) ____ is a block of code (containing standard SQL statements and procedural extensions) that is stored and executed at the DBMS server. a. PSM c. SQL Statement b. PLS d. PMR
a. PSM
____ 88. ____ is a relational set operator. a. MINUS c. ALL b. PLUS d. EXISTS
a. MINUS
____ 58. An atomic attribute ____. a. cannot exist in a relational table c. displays multiplicity b. cannot be further subdivided d. is always chosen to be a foreign key
b. cannot be further subdivided
____ 92. The ____ data type is compatible with NUMBER. a. VARCHAR(15) c. DATE b. SMALLINT d. CHAR(10)
b. SMALLINT
____ 69. A table is in 4NF if it is in 3NF and ____. a. all attributes must be dependent on the primary key, and must be dependent on each other b. all attributes are unrelated c. has no multivalued dependencies d. no column contains the same values
c. has no multivalued dependencies
____ 60. Granularity refers to ____. a. the size of a table b. the level of detail represented by the values stored in a table's row c. the number of attributes in a table d. the number of rows in a table
b. the level of detail represented by the values stored in a table's row
____ 64. To generate a surrogate key, Microsoft Access uses a(n) ____ data type. a. surrogate c. AutoNumber b. sequence d. identity
c. AutoNumber
____ 74. ____ databases reflect the ever-growing demand for greater scope and depth in the data on which decision support systems increasingly rely. a. Normalized c. Temporary b. Data warehouse d. Report
b. Data warehouse
____ 66. BCNF can be violated only if the table contains more than one ____ key. a. primary c. foreign b. candidate d. secondary
b. candidate
____ 81. A(n) ____ join returns not only the rows matching the join condition (that is, rows with matching values in the common columns) but also the rows with unmatched values. a. outer c. equi- b. inner d. cross
a. outer
____ 52. If you have three different transitive dependencies, ____ different determinant(s) exist. a. one c. three b. two d. four
c. three
____ 99. The ____ pseudo-column is used to select the next value from a sequence. a. CURRVAL c. NEXT b. NEXTVAL d. GET_NEXT
b. NEXTVAL
____ 51. A table that is in 1NF and includes no partial dependencies is said to be in ____. a. BCNF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
b. 2NF
____ 65. A table where every determinant is a candidate key is said to be in ____. a. BCNF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
a. BCNF
____ 75. When using a(n) ____ join, only rows that meet the given criteria are returned. a. full c. outer b. inner d. set
b. inner
____ 91. The Oracle ____ function compares an attribute or expression with a series of values and returns an associated value or a default value if no match is found. a. NVL c. DECODE b. TO_CHAR d. CONVERT
c. DECODE
____ 56. According to naming conventions described in Chapter 2, ____ would be the best name for a column representing the charges per hour in a table named JOB. a. JOB_CHG_HOUR c. CHARGES_PER_HOUR b. CHARGES_PER_HOUR_FOR_JOB d. CHG_HR
a. JOB_CHG_HOUR
____ 84. A ____ is a query (SELECT statement) inside a query. a. subquery c. join b. range query d. set query
a. subquery
____ 98. The Oracle equivalent to an MS Access AutoNumber is a(n) ____. a. auto-number c. TO_NUMBER function b. sequence d. trigger
b. sequence
____ 87. The ____ function returns the current system date in MS Access. a. TO_DATE() c. DATE() b. SYSDATE() d. TODAY()
c. DATE()
____ 63. For most business transactional databases, we should normalize relations into ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 6NF
c. 3NF
____ 70. When designing a database, you should ____. a. make sure entities are in normal form before table structures are created b. create table structures then normalize the database c. only normalize the database when performance problems occur d. consider more important issues such as performance before normalizing
a. make sure entities are in normal form before table structures are created
____ 80. The ANSI standard defines ____ type(s) of outer join(s) a. one c. three b. two d. four
c. three
____ 94. The syntax for the UNION query is ____. a. query + query c. UNION: query query b. UNION (query, query) d. query UNION query
d. query UNION query
____ 67. Most designers consider the BCNF as a special case of the ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
c. 3NF
____ 86. In a subquery, the ____ query is executed first. a. left c. inner b. right d. outer
c. inner
____ 55. A table that is in 2NF and contains no transitive dependencies is said to be in ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
c. 3NF
____ 77. How many rows would be returned from a cross join of tables A and B, if A contains 8 rows and B contains 18? a. 8 c. 26 b. 18 d. 144
d. 144
____ 53. Before converting a table into 3NF, it is imperative the table already be in ____. a. 1NF c. 4NF b. 2NF d. BCNF
b. 2NF
____ 82. The syntax for a left outer join is ____. a. "SELECT column-list FROM table1 OUTER JOIN table2 LEFT WHERE join-condition" b. "SELECT column-list FROM table1 LEFT [OUTER] JOIN table2 ON join-condition" c. "SELECT column-list WHERE LEFT table1 = table 2" d. "SELECT column-list FROM table1 LEFT table2 [JOIN] WHERE join-condition"
b. "SELECT column-list FROM table1 LEFT [OUTER] JOIN table2 ON join-condition"
____ 79. If you wish to create an inner join, but the two tables do not have a commonly named attribute, you can use a(n) ____ clause. a. OF c. HAS b. USING d. JOIN ON
d. JOIN ON
____ 97. The ____ operator could be used in place of MINUS if the RDBMS does not support it. a. IN c. AND b. NOT IN d. UNION
b. NOT IN
____ 62. In a real-world environment, we must strike a balance between design integrity and ____. a. robustness c. uniqueness b. flexibility d. ease of use
b. flexibility
____ 90. The ____ data type is considered compatible with VARCHAR(35). a. DATE c. TINYINT b. INT d. CHAR(15)
d. CHAR(15)
____ 61. From a system functionality point of view, ____ attribute values can be calculated when they are needed to write reports or invoices. a. derived c. granular b. atomic d. historical
a. derived
____ 59. The most likely data type for a surrogate key is ____. a. Character c. Logical b. Date d. Numeric
d. Numeric
____ 54. If a table has multiple candidate keys and one of those candidate keys is a composite key, the table can have ____ based on this composite candidate key, even when the primary key chosen is a single attribute. a. Boyce-Codd Normal Form c. time-variance b. redundancy d. partial dependencies
d. partial dependencies
____ 83. A ____ join returns rows with matching values and includes all rows from both tables (T1 and T2) with unmatched values. a. natural c. full outer b. cross d. left outer
c. full outer
____ 78. A(n) ____ join will select only the rows with matching values in the common attribute(s). a. natural c. full b. cross d. outer
a. natural
____ 89. “Union-compatible” means that the ____. a. names of the relation attributes can be different, but the data types must be alike b. names of the relation attributes must be the same, but the data types can be different c. names of the relation attributes must be the same and their data types must be alike d. number of attributes must be the same, but the names and data types can be different
c. names of the relation attributes must be the same and their data types must be alike
____ 73. The conflicts between design efficiency, information requirements, and processing speed are often resolved through ____. a. conversion from 1NF to 2NF b. conversion from 2NF to 3NF c. compromises that include denormalization d. conversion from 3NF to 4NF
c. compromises that include denormalization
____ 68. A table where all attributes are dependent on the primary key and are independent of each other, and no row contains two or more multivalued facts about an entity, is said to be in ____. a. 1NF c. 3NF b. 2NF d. 4NF
d. 4NF
____ 93. The ____ query combines rows from two queries and excludes duplicates. a. UNION c. INTERSECT b. UNION ALL d. MINUS
a. UNION
____ 96. The ____ operator could be used in place of INTERSECT if the RDBMS does not support it. a. IN c. AND b. OF d. UNION
d. UNION
____ 76. The statement SELECT * FROM T1, T2 produces a(n) ____ join. a. cross c. equi- b. natural d. full
a. cross
____ 71. Normalization represents a micro view of the ____ within the ERD. a. entities c. relationships b. attributes d. forms
a. entities
____ 57. Improving ____ leads to more flexible queries. a. atomicity c. denormalization b. normalization d. derived attributes
a. atomicity
Section 3
(50 cards)
____ 123. Producing the required information flow is part of the ____ phase of the DBLC. a. database initial study c. operation b. database design d. testing and evaluation
c. operation
____ 148. The information stored in the ____ is used by the DBMS for a recovery requirement triggered by a ROLLBACK statement, a program’s abnormal termination, or a system failure such as a network discrepancy or a disk crash. a. data dictionary c. rollback manager b. metadata d. transaction log
d. transaction log
____ 101. In Oracle, ____ make(s) it possible to merge SQL and traditional programming constructs, such as variables, conditional processing (IF-THEN-ELSE), basic loops (FOR and WHILE loops,) and error trapping. a. triggers c. embedded SQL b. indexes d. procedural SQL
d. procedural SQL
____ 141. ____ means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used by a second transaction until the first one is completed. a. Serializability c. Isolation b. Atomicity d. Time stamping
c. Isolation
____ 132. The maintenance and evolution phase of the DBLC involves ____. a. defining objectives c. testing the database b. introducing changes d. installing the DBMS
b. introducing changes
____ 143. A single-user database system automatically ensures ____ of the database, because only one transaction is executed at a time. a. serializability and durability c. serializability and isolation b. atomicity and isolation d. atomicity and serializability
c. serializability and isolation
____ 105. The process of creating an information system is known as ____ development. a. systems c. network b. database d. transformation
a. systems
____ 106. The process of database design and implementation is ____ development. a. systems c. network b. database d. transformation
b. database
____ 142. All transactions must display ____. a. atomicity, consistency, and durability b. durability and isolation c. consistency, durability, and isolation d. atomicity, durability, consistency, and isolation
d. atomicity, durability, consistency, and isolation
____ 121. Installing the DBMS, creating the database, and loading or converting the data are part of the ____ phase of the DBLC. a. database initial study c. implementation and loading b. database design d. testing and evaluation
c. implementation and loading
____ 118. The implementation of ____-produced applications tends to prolong the operational life of systems by making them easier to update and maintain. a. database c. CASE b. network d. design
c. CASE
____ 109. User requirements, existing system evaluation, and logical system design are part of the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. analysis d. implementation
b. analysis
____ 120. Creating the conceptual design and selecting DBMS software are part of the ____ phase of the DBLC. a. database initial study c. implementation and loading b. database design d. testing and evaluation
b. database design
____ 134. The first step in the ER model verification process is to ____. a. identify each module and its components b. identify the ER model's central entity c. verify all processes against the ER model d. identify each module's internal transaction requirements
b. identify the ER model's central entity
____ 127. The conceptual design step that defines entities, attributes, and relationships is ____. a. database analysis and requirements b. entity relationship modeling and normalization c. data model verification d. distributed database design
b. entity relationship modeling and normalization
____ 125. The database initial study phase of the DBLC involves ____. a. defining objectives c. testing the database b. introducing changes d. installing the DBMS
a. defining objectives
____ 146. ANSI defines four events that signal the end of a transaction. Of the following events, which is defined by ANSI as being equivalent to a ROLLBACK? a. Five SQL statements are executed. b. The end of a program is successfully reached. c. The program is abnormally terminated. d. The database is shut down for maintenance.
c. The program is abnormally terminated.
____ 128. The conceptual design step that identifies ER modules and validates insert, update, and delete rules is ____. a. database analysis and requirements b. ER modeling and normalization c. data-model verification d. distributed database design
c. data-model verification
____ 135. ____ coupling describes the extent to which modules are independent of one another. a. Verification c. Module b. Process d. Cohesive
c. Module
____ 111. Coding, testing, and debugging are part of the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. analysis d. implementation
d. implementation
____ 150. As long as two transactions, T1 and T2, access ____ data, there is no conflict, and the order of execution is irrelevant to the final outcome. a. shared c. unrelated b. common d. locked
c. unrelated
____ 144. The ANSI has defined standards that govern SQL database transactions. Transaction support is provided by two SQL statements: ____ and ROLLBACK. a. RETRIEVE c. UPDATE b. ASSIGN d. COMMIT
d. COMMIT
____ 108. The initial assessment and the feasibility study are part of the SDLC's ____ phase. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. analysis d. implementation
a. planning
____ 113. “Should the existing system be replaced?” is a question that is asked during the ____ stage of the SDLC. a. planning c. implementation b. analysis d. maintenance
a. planning
____ 139. A consistent database state is ____. a. one in which all tables have foreign keys b. one in which all data integrity constraints are satisfied c. one in which all tables are normalized d. one in which all SQL statements only update one table at a time
b. one in which all data integrity constraints are satisfied
____ 117. The database is loaded during the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. analysis c. implementation b. detailed systems design d. maintenance
c. implementation
____ 119. Analyzing the company situation is part of the ____ phase of the DBLC. a. database initial study b. database design c. implementation and loading, testing, and evaluation d. operation
a. database initial study
____ 112. Evaluation, maintenance, and enhancement are part of the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. maintenance d. implementation
b. maintenance
____ 140. ____ requires that all operations of a transaction be completed. a. Specificity c. Durability b. Atomicity d. Time stamping
b. Atomicity
____ 131. Once the data has been loaded into the database, the ____ tests and fine-tunes the database for performance, integrity, concurrent access, and security constraints. a. programmer c. database administrator b. manager d. systems administrator
c. database administrator
____ 124. The first step in the DBLC is ____. a. operation c. database design b. database initial study d. implementation and loading
b. database initial study
____ 114. “What are the requirements of the current system’s end users?”is a question asked during the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. implementation b. analysis d. maintenance
b. analysis
____ 133. The first step in developing the conceptual model using ER diagrams is to ____. a. normalize the entities b. complete the initial ER diagram c. identify, analyze, and refine the business rules d. define the attributes, primary keys, and foreign keys for each of the entities
c. identify, analyze, and refine the business rules
____ 147. The implicit beginning of a transaction is ____. a. when the database is started b. when a table is accessed for the first time c. when the first SQL statement is encountered d. when the COMMIT command is issued
c. when the first SQL statement is encountered
____ 129. The conceptual design step that defines the DBMS and data model to use is ____. a. database analysis and requirements b. ER modeling and normalization c. data-model verification d. distributed database design
d. distributed database design
____ 145. ANSI defines four events that signal the end of a transaction. Of the following events, which is defined by ANSI as being equivalent to a COMMIT? a. Five SQL statements are executed. b. The end of a program is successfully reached. c. The program is abnormally terminated. d. The database is shut down for maintenance.
b. The end of a program is successfully reached.
____ 115. The logical systems design is created during the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. implementation b. analysis d. maintenance
b. analysis
____ 110. A detailed system specification is part of the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. analysis d. implementation
c. detailed systems design
____ 122. Testing, fine-tuning, and evaluating the database and its applications are part of the ____ phase of the DBLC. a. database initial study c. implementation and loading b. database design d. testing and evaluation
d. testing and evaluation
____ 136. The ____ design is the process of selecting the data storage and data access characteristics of the database. a. time c. logical b. network d. physical
d. physical
____ 138. A transaction is a ____ unit of work that must be either entirely completed or aborted. a. timed c. logical b. practical d. physical
c. logical
____ 107. The primary objective of database design is ____. a. to create the most efficient database possible b. to create complete, normalized, nonredundant, and fully integrated conceptual, logical, and physical database models c. to create the fastest queries d. to be able to add data quickly
b. to create complete, normalized, nonredundant, and fully integrated conceptual, logical, and physical database models
____ 116. The design of the system’s processes is completed during the ____ phase of the SDLC. a. planning c. detailed systems design b. analysis d. implementation
c. detailed systems design
____ 102. The PL/SQL block starts with the ____ clause. a. IS c. DECLARE b. OPEN d. BEGIN
d. BEGIN
____ 103. Oracle recommends ____ for creating audit logs. a. triggers c. stored functions b. stored procedures d. tables
a. triggers
____ 137. During decentralized design, after the ____ process has been completed, all modules are integrated into one conceptual model. a. initial c. conceptual b. verification d. logical
b. verification
____ 130. ____ allow(s) physical access to areas by authorized personnel only. a. Physical security c. Access rights b. Password security d. Data encryption
a. Physical security
____ 126. The conceptual design step that determines end-user views, outputs, and transaction-processing requirements is ____. a. data analysis and requirements b. entity relationship modeling and normalization c. data model verification d. distributed database design
a. data analysis and requirements
____ 104. A stored function uses the ____ statement to return a value. a. EXIT c. RETURN b. END d. PROCESS
c. RETURN
____ 149. One of the three most common data integrity and consistency problems is ____. a. lost updates c. user errors b. disk failures d. deadlocks
a. lost updates
Section 4
(17 cards)