Section 1
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Risk Management and Personal minimums (PAVE)
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Last updated
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Date created
Mar 1, 2020
Cards (135)
Section 1
(50 cards)
Risk Management and Personal minimums (PAVE)
(PAVE) Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures
Holding pattern timing
-adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes -at or below 14,000 MSL-1 min -above 14,000 MSL-1.5 min
Max holding speeds
0-6000 MSL-200KTS 6001-14000 MSL- 230 KTS Above 14000 MSL-265 KTS
Mandatory reporting call out
I-ID P-position T-time Zulu A-Altitude N-next fix E-Eta to next fix then what the next fix after that is S-supplement info
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
VOT Ground Check Airborne Airway Dual VOR
MDA
Minimum Descent Altitude
What are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment to be legal for IFR flight?
Annual - every 12 calendar months (91.409) VOR - every 30 days for IFR (91.171) 100 hour if airplane is being operated for hire (91.409) Altimeter/Pitot Static - 24 calendar months; required for IFR flight (91.411) Transponder - 24 calendar months (91.413) ELT - 12 calendar months or after 1 hour cumulative use or half of battery life (91.207) Service bulletins and ADs complied with (PHAK 8-12)
MVA
Minimum Vectoring Altitude
Lost communication procedures route (Route to fly)
AVEF A-assigned Route,if none: V-vectored E-last expected route by atc F-filled route
Pitot tube blocked but not the drain hole
Airspeed will indicate zero
Non-Precision Approaches
Preflight self assessment (IMSAFE)
I.M S.A.F.E I- Illness M- Medication S- Stress A- Alcohol ("8 hours bottle to throttle"; no more than .04% of alcohol in blood) F- Fatigue E- Emotion
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
Date, place, bearing error, and signature
MEA
Minimum En route Altitude Assures navigation coverage and IFR min Altitudes
Preflight info required for IFR: (§91.103)
W.K.R.A.F.T W- Weather reports and forecasts. K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC. R- Runway length of intended use. A- Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned. F- Fuel requirements T- Takeoff and landing performance data.
IFR minimum altitudes
Minimum prescribed, or if none: Mountainous areas: 2,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. (§91.177)
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude
Do not fly Procedure turn when
SHARPTT -Straight in approach -Holding in lieu of a procedure turn -Arc -Radar vectored to final -P NO PT depicted on chart -Timed approach -Teardrop course reversal
aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR AVIATE
A.V.I.A.T.E- - A-Annual inspection every 12 cal. Months - V-VOR every 30 days - I-100 hour inspection - A-Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system every 24 cal. months - T-Transponder every 24 months - E-ELT every 12 months
Instrument Approach types
Precision Ils-instrument landing system MLS-microwave Lansing system PAR-Precision approach Radar GLS-GNSS LANDING TLS-transponder Lansing system
Min Aeronautical experience IFR
50hr xc Pic time —— 10 in an airplane 40hrs of actual or simulated instrument time ——- of which, 15 hrs with a CFII **** 250nm Along airways orndirected bt atc An instrument approach at each airport 3 diiferent approaches usining nav systems 3hr in the last calender months prior to the practice test
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control departure procedure printed for pilot use in graphic and/or textual form. SIDs provide transition from the terminal to the appropriate enroute structure.
VSI
- Measures the difference between static pressure and static pressure that is subject to a calibrated leak approximately every 6-9 seconds.
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR?
Within the preceding 6 months of the flight, 6 instrument approaches and holding procedures and intercepting and tracking courses must be completed either in actual IMC, in VMC while using a view limiting device, or in a flight simulator/FTD.
Lost communication procedures route (Altitude to fly)
MEA M-minimum Altitude prescribed for IFR E-expected (5000 10min after dp A-last assigned alt by atc Highest amount the 3
What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers? (61.57)
3 take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class and type if required. At night, these 3 landings must be made to a full stop.
Mandatory reports under IFR
missed approach airspeed +- 10kt or 5% changed of filed TAS reaching a holding fix vfr on top eta change +- 3 minutes leaving a holding fix or point outer marker unforecasted weather safety of flight vacating an altitude final approach fix radio or nav failure compulsory reporting points 500 unable climb or decent
MORA
Minimum Off Route Altitude
Personal documents required for flight
pilot certificate medical photo id restricted operator license (flights outside US)
1/2/3/ or 1-2003 rule If within (1)hr before or (1)hr after ETA forecasted weather is less then: (200) ft ceiling and/or (3sm) visibility you need an alternate
Airspeed Indicator -
This is the only instrument that uses both the pitot and static ports. It measures the difference between dynamic pressure (ram air entering the pitot tube) and static pressure (air that is unaffected by the aircraft's flight path). Ram air exerts a force on a diaphragm inside of the instrument. The instrument case is full of static air.
What aircraft/instruments/equipment are required for IFR operations?
ATOMATOFLAMES, FLAPS, and GRABCARD (91.205) Generator/alternator Radio Altimeter (adjustable) Ball (inclinometer) Clock w/ hours, minutes, and seconds Attitude indicator Rate of turn indicator Directional gyro *DME is required at or above FL240 if VOR navigation is required
Lost communication procedures (Altitude)
M-minimum Altitude prescribed for IFR E-expected A-last assigned Altitude by ATC
Instrument PIC recency of experience (6 hits)
(6) instrument approaches (H) holding procedures and task (I) intercepting & (T)rack courses through the use of electronic navigation (S)ystemems
MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude; provides obstacle clearance along the airway and NAV signal reception within 22 NM of closest navaid defining the route.
Pitot tube and drain whole blocked
Indicated airspeed will Increases with altitude gain and decrease with altitude loss
DA/h
descent altitude/height
Obstacle Departure Procedures
ODP are printed either textually or graphically to assist pilots in obstruction avoidance, and may be flown by the pilot without an ATC clearance, unless an alternate SID or radar vector has been assigned
Where can you find the location of airborne, ground and VOT testing stations?
Chart Supplement (see back cover)
What documents need to be on board an aircraft to make it legal for IFR flight?
ARROW (91.9, 91.203) Airworthiness Certificate Registration Radio License (required for international flight) Operating Limitations (found in the POH) Weight and Balance equipment list
When do we need a procedure turn?
S-straight in approach H-holding in lieu A-arch R-radar vectors P-published T-timed approach T-tear drop published course reversal
Teardrop Entry
Proceed direct to holding fix Upon crossing fix, turn 30* from outbound on protected side Fly this heading for 1 minute, then make turn it inbound course Left Add Right Subtract
If a pilot allows his/her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again? (61.57)
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude
Altimeter
This measures the difference between static pressure inside of the instrument case and standard pressure (29.92" Hg) sealed inside of an aneroid wafer. When the airplane is climbing and ambient pressure begins to decrease, the wafer is able to expand because the air that is sealed inside is now of higher pressure. The altimeter is a sensitive altimeter meaning that it can be calibrated to the local barometric pressure by adjusting the Kollsman window.
When is an instrument rating required?
Under IFR Flight Plan In Weather Less than VFR Class A Airspace Special VFR Class B,C,D,E at Night
OROCA
Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude: obstruction clearance by 1000 ft in non-mountainous terrain (2000 ft in mountainous terrain). May not provide signal coverage from ground-based navaids, ATC radar, or communications coverage.
Aircraft documents required for flight
Aircraft documents required for flight: A.R.R.O.W- A- Airworthiness certificate R-Registration certificate R-Radio station license (for international flights) O-Operating limitations & AFM W-Weight & Balance data (§21.5, §91.103, §91.9, §91.203, FCC form 605)
Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
Provides a standard way to funnel traffic from the enroute phase to the terminal phase of flight. Uses the same symbolism as low-enroute charts. Note that in order to fly the MEAs listed on a STAR, the aircraft must be given a "descend via" clearance.
MAA
Maximum authorized altitude
Section 2
(50 cards)
Static Source Blockage
Indicated airspeed will decrease with an altitude gain and increase with altitude loss no change in Altimeter and VSI
Attitude Indicator
Rotates in the horizontal plane and operates off of the principle of rigidity in space. The aircraft pitches and rolls around the erect gyroscope. The effects of precession are not felt because pendulous vanes attached to the base of the gyro duct high pressure air from the vacuum through small doors that open and close by the force of gravity to keep the gyro in its original position.
What is a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA) (
More precise than an SDF because the course is usually between 3°- 6° just like a localizer (hence, localizer type). An LDA may also provide a glideslope for vertical guidance in some instances. These are published as LDA/Glideslope and are characterized as APVs (approaches with vertical guidance). So what makes this different from a localizer or ILS? An LDA is NOT aligned with the runway. Upon arriving at the MDA/DA, the pilot will have to maneuver the aircraft into position to make a normal landing. LDAs may have straight in minimums, however, if the alignment is within 30° of the runway centerline.
Heading Indicator
Rotates in the vertical plane and operates off of rigidity in space as well. As the aircraft yaws around the gyro, a gear inside of the instrument case rotates the compass card to show the magnetic direction. Precession caused from aircraft movement and friction causes error that must be corrected by resetting the heading indicator to the magnetic compass approximately every 15 minutes
What is WAAS? (AIM 1-1-18)
Wide Area Augmentation System Enhances the GPS integrity and availability by: Incorporating wide-area ground reference stations to monitor the signal from the GPS satellites. The information is sent to a master station where the correction occurs The corrected signal is a sent to a GEO (geostationary satellite) and is broadcast on the same frequency as GPS to WAAS receivers.
Discuss isobars. What does it mean when the isobars are close together? (pg.15 and 24)
Isobars connect equal lines of pressure. Closely spaced isobars means that there is a strong pressure gradient and winds will be strong.
Acceleration Error
While on east or west headings, acceleration results in a slight turn to the north. Deceleration results in a slight turn to the south. The rule is: ANDS Accelerate North Decelerate South
Can you choose an airport without an IAP as an alternate?
If there is no published procedure, the weather must allow a descent from the MEA to a landing under VFR.
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Procedures are designed to leave the en route structure and bring the pilot to a NAVAID or fix (usually an IAF) to begin an approach. The purpose is provide a seamless transition between different phases of flight and to maintain descent and deceleration profiles. They require an ATC clearance and the pilot must have the chart in his/her possession Unlike DPs, transitions occur before the STAR itself. The STAR is named after the fix where the transitions come together.
Gyroscopic Instruments
The Gyroscopic instruments are powered by an engine driven vacuum pump with the exception of the turn coordinator which is electrically powered. The two principles that gyroscopes operate off of are: Rigidity in space: while spinning, a gyroscope will tend to stay fixed in its plane of rotation. Think of a bicycle wheel. With enough momentum, you are able to stay naturally balanced. Precession: when a force is applied to a gyroscope, the resultant force is felt 90° ahead in the direction of the rotation.
Northerly Turning Error
CG displacement of the float assembly in the compass causes false turn indications. When turning to the north, the turn should be stopped prior to arrival at the desired heading. When turning south, turn pass the desired heading. The rule is: UNOS Undershoot North Overshoot South
What criteria determines that you will remain clear of obstacles when flying an ODP?
1. Cross the departure end of the runway at or above 35' AGL 2. Make first turn no earlier than 400' AGL (unless otherwise specified) 3. Maintain climb gradient of at least 200fpnm (unless otherwise specified)
Turn Coordinator
This electrically powered gyro rotates in the vertical plane and it uses precession to measure rate of turn and rate of roll. When the aircraft yaws, the gyro precesses and the airplane on the face of the instrument indicates the direction and rate of the turn. Notice in the diagram of the instrument that it is slightly canted upwards. This is so rate of roll can be indicated as well. When the aircraft begins a bank the aircraft will also indicate the direction of the bank. If it is a rapid roll the airplane will respond by
What does it mean if there is only a single coded identification every 30 seconds on a VORTAC station?
The VOR function is not working but the DME function is working
DME is distance measuring equipment. It is a separate ground station that may be collocated with a VOR, ILS, or localizer. It provides slant range distance in NM. When using VOR navigation above 24000, DME or a suitable RNAV system is required.
What is the difference between a contact and visual approach? (AIM 5-4-23)
Visual Approach Issued by ATC or by pilot request Requires at least 3sm vis. and 1000' ceilings Pilot must have runway or aircraft to follow in sight Radar service is terminated Pilot is responsible for traffic and obstacle avoidance Contact Approach Must be requested by pilot (ATC will not issue) Airport must have an IAP Requires only 1sm vis. and pilot must stay clear of clouds Pilot retains IFR clearance and squawk code Pilot is responsible for traffic and obstacle avoidance
What is slant-range distance? To minimize slant-range error, how far from the facility should you be and at what altitude? (IFH 9-19)
Slant range distance is the actual distance between the aircraft and the ground station (as opposed to the horizontal distance). Altitude aircraft has a direct effect on slant range error. This error will be minimized if the aircraft is at least 1 mile away from the station for every 1000' of altitude.
What are the requirements of using GPS for IFR? (AIM 1-1-17) (
GPS must be certified by TSO-C129 (RAIM) or TSO-C145 or 146 (WAAS) The installation must be done in accordance with AC 20-138 If not, then the GPS can only be used to enhance situational awareness but ACTIVE MONOTORING or an alternate navigation source is required.
Oscillation Error
A combination of all of these errors and results in the compass swinging back and forth around the headings being flown
Pitot and Static blockage
all . things remain the same and do not change even thought they should
What are the different classes of VOR stations? What are their service volumes?
What are the general characteristics of low/high pressure areas? (
Low - Cyclone - counterclockwise and rising air High - Anti Cyclone - clockwise and descending air
What is a Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)?
It provides lateral guidance similar to a localizer but less accurate because the course is fixed to either 6° or 12°. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline but usually not by more than 3°. There is no vertical guidance.
How do you determine the VOR station is operating properly? (
1. Tune the appropriate VOR frequency 2. Use the Ident. feature to listen to the associated Morse Code 3. Make sure the NAV warning flag is not in view
What is the usable range of the glide slope?
10nm
Variation
Since the magnetic north pole and the geographic North Pole are not collocated, we need to consider this when planning flights. Easterly variation is subtracted from true heading while westerly variation is added to get our magnetic heading. Remember: East is least and West is best!
What is the minimum visibility needed to takeoff?
There are no weather limitations for aircraft operating under Part 91. Standard takeoff minimums however are 1sm for aircraft having two engines or less.
Deviation
Since a compass depends on aligning with the Earth's magnetic fields to read accurately, any kind of other local magnetic fields will cause an error known as deviation. This other magnetic fields are produced from electrical currents from the aircraft avionics and varies on different headings. The compass correction card located on the compass tells the pilot which compass heading to steer to for a desired magnetic heading.
What are the 2 different types of departure procedures? (AIM 5-2-8)
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
What are the benefits of WAAS capable GPS? (AIM 1-1-18 e. 2)
More precise than RAIM Provides lateral and vertical navigation without the temperature errors associated with Baro-Vnav No RAIM prediction necessary An airport that only has a GPS approach may be selected as an alternate *for flight planning purposes - only LNAV minimums can be considered
How do surface winds flow in relationship to isobars? Why? Winds aloft?
At the surface winds flow at an angle to the isobars because of surface friction. Aloft, winds from more or less parallel because of the Coriolis force.
How is the touchdown zone elevation determined?
The highest elevation in the first 3000' of the runway
Why are SIDs published? (AIM 5-2-8)
While SIDs still provide obstacle clearance, they are designed to 1. Reduce ATC and pilot workload 2. Minimize communications 3. Increase airspace capacity 4. Simplify clearances 5. Comply with noise abatement procedures SIDs must be issued in a clearance by ATC and are always printed graphically in the TPPs.
How does GPS work?
GPS is a space based navigation system as opposed to land based NAVAIDs such as VORs, DME, etc. Satellite constellation consists of 24 NAVSTAR satellites arranged in 6 orbital planes 11,000 miles above the Earth. Arranged so that at least 5 satellites in view at all times Distance is determined by the time it takes for radio signal to travel from satellite to aircraft Position is triangulated from multiple satellites 4 satellites are needed to determine a 3D position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) 5 are needed for RAIM
MDA
the lowest altitude in MSL to which a descent is authorized on final approach. There is no requirement to arrive at the MDA at a certain point so long as the procedure is being flown as published. Upon arriving at the MDA, the pilot holds this altitude until either the runway environment is sight or the missed approach point is reached.
What type of clouds, visibility and precipitation would you expect from stable air? Unstable air?
Stable air: stratiform clouds, poor visibility, smooth air, steady or continuous precipitation Unstable: Cumuliform clouds or clouds with vertical development, good visibility, turbulence, and showery precipitation
What is a minimum altitude for IFR flight? (91.177)
In mountainous areas, 2000' above the highest obstacle within 4nm In non-mountainous areas, 1000' above the highest obstacle within 4nm
How would you know if an ODP has published for an airport?
The T symbol in the notes section of an IAP means that the takeoff minimums are not standard. Refer to the takeoff minimums section of the TPPs for the new criteria and ODPs. ODPs are always textual and sometimes graphic. Graphic ODPs will have (OBSTACLE) printed on them.
DA
- the lowest altitude on a precision approach or an approach with vertical guidance (APV) expressed in MSL. Upon arriving at the DA, the missed approach must be executed if the required visual reference is not in sight.
What is the pilot's responsibility concerning ODPs?
1. Determine that an ODP has been published 2. Determine whether or not to fly it even if not issued by ATC in a clearance. Pilots are encouraged to fly ODPs at night, in MVFR, and IFR conditions 3. Determine aircraft performance is adequate for the procedure 4. Be aware of low close-in obstacles
What are the components of the ILS?
Visual: approach lighting system, VASI/PAPI, and precision approach runway Range: marker beacons/compass locator and/or DME Lateral and vertical guidance: localizer and glideslope
What is the course width of a localizer signal?
Localizer courses vary between 3° and 6° so that at the landing threshold the total width is 700'
Magnetic dip
While flying on a north or south heading, these turning errors are most pronounced. While flying a north heading and turning to the left, the compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction and lag behind the turn. When on a south heading, the compass will lead the turn and show that the turn is being made a much faster rate than it actually is.
Where is the localizer antenna array located (AIM 1-1-9 Figure 1-1-7)?
The departure end of the runway aligned with the centerline
Can an airport that only has a GPS be filed as an alternate? (AIM 1-1-18 e. 2)
Only if the aircraft is equipped with WAAS capable GPS certified under TSO-C145 or TSO-146
Magnetic Compass Errors
Deviation Variation Magnetic dip Oscillation North and South Accelerate/decelerate errors
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring The purpose is to determine the accuracy or "integrity" of the GPS signal. It does this by comparing the signals from the 5 satellites. If there is a discrepancy RAIM gives you an alert that the signal may not be reliable. There are 2 error messages you can potentially receive: 1. A discrepancy or potential error has been detected 2. There are not enough satellites in view to give you RAIM
Why are ODPs published? (AIM 5-2-8)
The primary purpose is to provide the pilot with a means to get from the terminal area to the en route structure while remaining clear of obstacles. There is an imaginary plane called the 40:1 Obstacle Identification Surface. If an obstacle penetrates this plane then the following may happen: 1. There will be a steeper than normal (200fpnm) climb gradient published 2. Other than standard takeoff minimums will be published so that pilot can maintain visual separation 3. A specific departure route will be published
What are the dimensions of victor airways? (IPH 2-2 and 2-18)
Victor airways begin at 1200' AGL and extend up to 17,999' MSL. The width is 8nm (4nm from each side of the centerline)
What are substitutes for an ILS outer marker? (91.175(k))
Compass locators, DME, VOR, GPS, Precision Approach Radar (PAR), or Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)
Section 3
(35 cards)