Section 1
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taurodontism is more common in _____ clients
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Cards (461)
Section 1
(50 cards)
taurodontism is more common in _____ clients
down syndrome
most common microdontia is ___
peg laterals (maxillary lateral incisors)
abfraction is seen as an angular notch at the _____ caused by bending forces applied to the tooth
gumline
teeth wear from use of abrasive substances is called _____
abrasion
is abfraction carious or non-carious?
non-carious
what do the pulp and crown of teeth show radiographically with dentinogenesis imperfecta:
abnormal pulp and crown
is taurodontism hereditary or developmental?
developmental
large teeth are called _____
macrodontia
peg laterals are where in the mouth?
maxillary lateral incisors
form of a non-carious tooth tissue loss that occurs along the gingival margin
abfraction
_______ is the wearing away of teeth from tooth to tooth contact, malocclusion, grinding and mastication
attrition
small teeth are called _____
microdontia
what muscle is used when someone has bruxism?
masseter
what is seen clinically with amelogenesis imperfecta?
-enamel hypoplasia -pits -grooves -soft thin enamel -teeth can darken or discolored
most common supernumerary/hyperdontia teeth?
mesiodens
common causes of tooth erosion: (3)
-bulimia -acidic food -GERD
is a diastema a hereditary or environmental/developmental trait?
hereditary
second most common supernumerary/hyperdontia
maxillary molar area (fourth molars, distomolar)
patients with dentinogenesis imperfecta, have _______ dentin and ______ teeth
-opalescent dentin -discolored teeth (blue-gray or yellow-brown)
factors that contribute to diastemas are:
-frenum attachment -muscle pull
supernumerary teeth is also called _____
hyperdontia
with hypodontia _____ is common
conical shaped teeth
partial anodontia is named _____
hypodontia
an example of ______ is tooth wear from chewing foreign objects
abrasion
complete absence of teeth is called ______
anodontia
________ are common with oligodontia
third molars
what syndromes are associated with hyperdontia
-gardners syndrom -cleidocranial dysostosis
are microdontia or macrodontia more rare?
macrodontia
rare isolated anomaly when the tooth body is enlarged at the expense of the roots
taurodontism
how does the dentin appear in teeth with amelogenesis imperfecta?
normal
amelogenesis imperfecta is a hereditary disorder of _____ formation
enamel (in picture, the enamel cannot be seen)
____ is a form of attrition resulting in excessive grinding
bruxism
less than normal teeth is called ____
hypodontia
______ has an angular notch at the gumline caused by bending forces applied to the tooth
abfraction
the space between two adjacent teeth
diastema
congenitally missing 6 teeth or more
oligodontia
inherited dentin disorder is _____
dentinogenesis imperfecta
hereditary disorder of enamel formation
amelogenesis imperfecta
loss of tooth structure from a chemical process
erosion
mesiodens are seen where?
between 8 and 9 (maxillary midline)
how does pulp appear in teeth with amelogenesis imperfecta?
normal
teeth usually look shiny or glossy when a person has _____
erosion
what type of developmental condition do we call a "Bull tooth"
taurodontism
what condition has poor dentin formation but comprised normal enamel?
dentinogenesis imperfecta
dentinogenesis and amelogenesis imperfecta are both _______ disorders
hereditary
anodontia is associated with with disorder?
ectodermal dysplasia
excess number of teeth
sumpernumerary/hyperdontia
the plural form of diastema is ________
diastemata
_____ is one or several teeth are missing
hypodontia
taurodontism teeth have _______ pulp chamber, ______ displacement of the pulpal floor, and _____ at the CEJ
-enlarged pulp chamber -apical displacement of the pulpal floor -lack of constriction at the CEJ
Section 2
(50 cards)
dens in dente (dens invaginatus) is most common where?
maxillary lateral incisor
what type of staining if green staining?
extrinsic
green staining can be caused by: (7)
-hyperbilirubinemia -Rh incompatibility (Rh is a blood protein) -ABO incompatibility (talking about blood types) -hemolytic disease -sepsis -poor oral hygiene -increased iron intake
dens in dente is also called _____
dens invaginatus
white, hyperkeratotic, coarse, nodular wrinkled patch appearance to hard palate in smokers
nicotinic stomatitis
in gemination or fusion is teeth count one tooth less than normal?
fusion
tooth within a tooth is called ______
dens in dente (dens invaginatus)
leukoedema is more prominent in ______ individuals
dark skin
______ is associated with HIV clients and is caused by EBV
hairy leukoplakia
hairy leukoplakia is usually seen as _____ on the _________
white patch on lateral border of tongue
T/F In teeth that have internal resorption, the pulp may show through enamel.
true
milky white/whitish-gray edematous lesions of buccal and labial mucosa that disappear when stretched
leukoedema
exogenous stains means ____
extrinsic stain
when enamel is inhibited possibly due to trauma affecting crown development
hypoplasia
a white lesion that has scattered red "dots" on the orifices of inflamed minor salivary glands/ benign but predisposes to malignancy
nicotinic stomatitis
which type of staining causes dentin to darken
intrinsic staining
occurs during cementum formation and deposition where teeth become bound together by cementum
concrescence
In gemination or fusion are teeth in the arch normal count?
gemination
when two teeth are joined during development resulting in one large tooth
fusion
underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ
hypoplasia
enamel pearls are usually present where?
bifurcations or trifurcations
is green staining more serious in children or adults?
children
staining that occurs of environmental factors such as tobacco use, wine, grape juice
extrinsic stain
is nicotinic stomatitis benign or malignant? painful or painless?
-benign but predisposes to malignancy -painless
systemic causes of hypoplasia: (5)
-early childhood diseases -birth trauma -syphillis acquired at birth -fluoride -trauma
concrescence is visible mostly in which teeth?
2nd and 3rd molars
______ leads to reddened hard palate with nicotinic stomatitis
heat
invagination of the crown or root that is lined with enamel
dens in dente (dens invaginatus)
Hutchinson's incisors, mulberry molars, and Turner's tooth are all considered ________ teeth
hypoplasia
fluoride levels ingested above _____ppm may cause fluorosis and if its above ____ ppm its dangerous
-above 2 causes fluorosis -above 4 is dangerous
disturbance of enamel formation during development
enamel pearls ectopic enamel
hyperkeratotic line of buccal mucosa along plane of occlusion
linea alba (frictional keratosis cheek)
what is "Turner's tooth"?
hypocalcified permanent tooth
what is the etiology of external resorption?
unknown possibly from ortho or some kind of trauma
Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars are caused by?
syphilis
what can cause red/black staining?
betel nut
endogenous gray, yellow, brown staining
tetracycline staining
is "Turner's tooth" caused by systemic or local factors?
local
is leukoplakia benign or malignant
usually benign
when two teeth have developed from a single root
gemination
exaggerated curve or bend in a tooth root or crown is called ?
dilaceration
white plaque/patches on oral mucosa that can not wipe off
leukoplakia
in teeth that have internal resorption, they have a _______ pulpal chamber
enlarged
dens in dente (dens invaginatus) has accentuation of the _____
lingual pit
most common fungal infection
candida albicans
etiology of internal resorption?
-possible pulp injury -sometimes idiopathic
tooth may appear pink with what developmental condition?
internal resorption
staining that may occur from enlarged pulp chamber or trauma
intrinsic stain
endogenous stains also means_____
intrinsic stain
hairy leukoplakia is associated with ______ clients and caused by _____
-HIV clients -Epstein Barr Virus
Section 3
(50 cards)
stafne's bone cyst is a depression on the __________ at the ________
mandible at the inferior alveolar canal
T/F Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie) can cause periodontal issues
true
Geographic tongue: Asymptomatic or symptomatic?
asymptomatic but possible burning
melanotic macule are also called ___________
oral focal melanosis
Melanotic macules: Symptomatic or Asymptomatic? Treatment or No Treatment?
-asymptomatic -no treatment
central papillary atrophy are located where?
anterior to circumvallate papilla
severe riboflavin (vitamin B2) deficiency has a similar appearance to ____________
angular cheilitis
xerostomia may be caused by:
-normal aging process -medications -radiation therapy -systemic conditions
treatment for angular cheilitis is:
topical= nystatin, clotrimazole systemic= ketoconazole, fluconazole(diflucan)
sialolithiasis (salivary stone) are most common where?
whartons (submandibular) ducts
Fordyce's granules are small, bilateral, yellow ______ of _______mucosa and ___________ after puberty
-yellow nodules -buccal mocosa and vermilion after puberty
small, bilateral, yellow nodules of buccal mucosa and vermilion after puberty
fordyces granules
dilated superficial veins are called _______
varicosities (Varix/varices)
form of thrush taht appears reddened
erythematous candidiasis
fissured areas at corner of the mouth?
angular cheilitis
amalgam tattoo is also called ______
focal argyrosis
areas of erythema surrounded by raised, white border on the tongue
geographic tongue (erythema migrans, benign migratory glossitis)
tongue-tied is called ______
ankyloglossia
anterior to circumvallate papilla, reddened area at midline of tongue-dorsal surface
central papillary atrophy
short, thick lingual frenum causing limitation of tongue movement affecting speech
ankyloglossia
__________ and _________ are common in down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
macroglossia and fissured tongue
________ is associated with feeding problems in infancy
ankyloglossia (tongue-tie)
All the following are local factors that cause candida albicans except which one? uncontrolled diabetes complete dentures steroid inhalers xerostomia
uncontrolled diabetes (this is a systemic factor)
calcification within gland or duct
sialolithiasis (salivary stone)
fissured tongue(furrowed tongue,scrotal tongue) is seen on the _______ of the tongue
dorsal
erythematous candidiasis is associated with __________ clients
HIV/AIDS clients
pigmented lesion that is flat, brown-freckle found intraorally or on the lip
melanotic macule
is physiologic pigmentation considered normal or not normal?
normal
depression on the mandible at the inferior alveolar canal-submandibular gland
stafne's bone cyst
three systemic factors that contribute to candida albicans:
-antibiotic therapy -HIV+ -uncontrolled diabetes
most common location of intraoral cancer is?
lateral borders of tongue
hairy tongue is elongation of the __________ papillae
filiform
___________ has several different presentations but all present with burning
candida albicans
three causes of hairy tongue:
-heavy smoking -antibiotic therapy -poor oral hygiene
classic presentation of ________ is white plaques that wipe off
pseudomemebranous candididasis (thrush)
ankyloglossia: seen more in men or women? whats the ratio?
men 4 males: 1 female
angular cheilities has a similar appearance with _________
severe riboflavin (vitaman B2) deficiency
these are associated with macroglossia: (3)
-excess growth hormone -mouth breathing -hypodontia
common oral lesion caused by intraoral sebaceous (oil) glands
fordyces granules
disease that has melanotic macules on buccal mucosa, gingiva, tongue and lips and also can have petechiae on the palate
addisons disease
local factors that contribute to candida albicans: (3)
-xerostomia -complete dentures/RPD's -steroid inhalers
fissured tongue is common in _________ clients
down syndrome
amalgam tattoo is seen as:
gray, blue-black flat lesion
median rhomboid glossitis is seen in ________ clients
immunocompromised
enlarged tongue is called _____
macroglossia
geographic tongue is atrophy of ________ papillae surrounded by raised white borders
filiform
red, ellipitcal or rhomboid, atrophic(depapillated) lesion often associated with candida albicans that is in the center of the dorsal tongue just anterior to the circumvallate papillae
median rhomboid glossitis (central papillary atrophy)
median rhomboid glossitis is often associated with ______
candida albicans
varicosities are prominent on _________
ventral tongue
T/F Sialolithiasis may cause obstruction and swelling when eating
true
Section 4
(50 cards)
gingival hyperplasia is a side effect to what medications?
-antiseizure medication (phenytoin, dilantin) -antirejection (cyclosporine) -calcium channel blockers (Nifedipine/ Procardia)
inflammed pulp tissue within a tooth that is severely decayed or has a large open carous lesion
chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp)
treatment for gingival hyperplasia is?
gingivectomy OHI
Is there treatment for a mucocele?
yes, excision -can recure if contributory salivary gland is not removed
with what salivary gland lesion/condition is there swelling on the floor of the mouth
ranula
T/F A tooth doesnt have to have decay to have chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyps)
false/ has to have severe decay or a large open carious lesion
pleomorphic adenoma: Painful or Painless? Malignant or Benign?
painless benign
most common site for a hemangioma?
tongue
inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia is also known as what?
epulis fissuratum
hemangiomas are caused by what?
it is a developmental vascular lesion
macroglossia can result if __________ is found on tongue
hemangioma
pleomorphic adenoma is considered a _____ tumor
mixed
"fibroma" around denture flange
epulis fissuratum (inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia)
epulis fissuratum is caused by what?
ill fitting denture
a fibroma is caused by what?
chronic trauma
papillary lesions under maxillary denture especially if the denture is never removed
papillary hyperplasia of the palate (pseudopapillomatosis)
virus transmitted through saliva or respiratory secretions
mumps (epidemic parotitis)
bluish/pink fluid-filled nodule caused by traumatic severance of salivary gland duct
mucocele
what is the treatment for epulis fissuratum?
-remove excess tissue and -reline or replace denture
pyogenic granuloma is most common in who?
children and young adults
mucocele of the floor of the mouth is called a ____
ranula
all of the following can cause gingival hyperplasia except which one? hormonal changes Cardizam heredity trauma
trauma does NOT cause (Cardizam is a calcium channel blocker)
ranulas are usually associated with ______ glands
sublingual
what soft tissue lesion/condition is caused by HPV and is peduculated-stalked?
papilloma
papilloma is caused by:
HPV
pyogenic granuloma has ___________ in response to local irritant
granulation tissue
Papilloma: treatment or no treatment? clinically seen as? recurrent or not recurrent?
-treatment= may need to be excised -clinically= cauliflower like/ peduculated/ stalked -usually does NOT recur
hemangiomas have a greater incidence in males or females?
females
most common benign tumor of the salivary glands
pleomorphic adenoma
benign salivary gland tumor that is a painless, well-circumscribed soft tissue swelling
pleomorphic adenoma
fibroma is a ________ tumor of the oral cavity
soft tissue
mumps (epidemic parotitis) has ________ symptoms and ____________enlargement
-flu like symptoms -bilateral parotid enlargement
what causes inflammation with gingival hyperplasia?
increased number of cells
gingival hyperplasia have a ________ in number of cells present causing inflammation
increase
papillomas are often found where?
soft palate and uvula (not sure on pic)
does a stafne's bone cyst require treatment?
no treatment
gingival hyperplasia can be caused by:
-medication -orthodontic appliances -hormonal changes -xerostomia -heredity
most common tumor of oral cavity?
fibroma
pleomorphic adenoma: out of the salivary glands, what is the most common location? most common intraoral location?
-parotid gland -hard palate (posterior)
mucoceles are caused by what?
traumatic severance of salivary gland duct
is there treatment for papillary hyperpasia of the palate?
yes/ excise tissue and remove denture
what can be a result of an hemangioma on the tongue
macroglossia
soft tissue lesion influenced by hormones especially during pregnancy
pyogenic granuloma
most common site for a mucocele is where?
lower lip
hyperplastic tissue in response to irritation
fibroma
stafne's bone cyst are usually located where?
submandibular gland
is chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyps) painful or painless?
painless
Which of the following causes gingival hyperplasia? procardia nifedipine verapamil propranolol lopressor cyclosporine dilantin amlodipine ritalin flagyl
-procardia (hypertensive) -nifedipine (calcium channel blocker) -verapamil (calcium channel blocker) -cyclosporine (antirejection) -dilantin (antiseizure) -amlodipine (calcium channel blocker)
gingival hyperplasia is mostly due to what?
medication
Fibroma: painful or painless? color? firm or soft?
-painless -pink -smooth firm
Section 5
(50 cards)
herpes labialis is from what virus?
herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1)
chickenpox and shingles are both caused by what virus?
varicella-zoster virus (VZV/HHV-3)
central giant cell granuloma are seen how radiographically?
radiolucent as unilocular or multilocular
primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is seen clinically as:
painful, red, multiple vesicles progressing to ulcers
treatment for HSV-1 (oral herpes) is what?
acyclovir(Zoviraz) or antiviral creams (others include: penciclovir (Denavir) and valacyclovir(Valtrex)
What virus is associated with oral hairy leukoplakia?
epstein-barr virus
HSV-1 (oral herpes) can be triggered by:
-stress -sun exposure -fever -menstruation
systemic problems included with having herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1/oral herpes) are:
-malaise -fever -lymphadenopathy
which viral infections shows flu-like symptoms?
herpangina and Hand-foot-and-Mouth disease
aphthous ulcer is located where?
unattached mucosa
What effects are seen in a patient with mononucleosus infection?
-fatigue -malaise -PALATAL PETECHAIE
Herpangina lesions are seen as _________ or _________ in the ________ oral cavity or _____ palate
-vesicles or ulcers -in the posterior oral cavity -soft palate
peripheral giant cell granuloma are clinically similar in apperance to _____
pyogenic granuloma
Kaposi's sarcoma is common in what kind of patient?
HIV infected clients
which virus has recurrent lesions that are "bound-down" keratinized mucosa on hard palate and attached gingiva
recurrent intraoral HSV
vesicles or ulcers in the posterior oral cavity or soft palate that are caused by the Coxsackie virus
herpangina
Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by what virus?
Human Herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
ulcerative lesion that is recurring and painful, well circumscribed with erythematous halo
aphthous ulcer
Herpetic Whitlow: painful or painless? recurrent or not? viral or fungal?
-painful -recurrent -viral
Kaposi's sarcoma: single or multiple lesions? color? pustule or macule? cancerous or benign?
-multiple lesions -bluish-purple and white -macules and plaques -cancerous
an infection associated with the Epstein-Barr virus that causes fatigue, malaise, and palatal petechaie
mononucleosus infection
healing for herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1/ oral herpes) is how long?
7-10 days
herpes simplex virus-1 (oral herpes) has the initial infection of what?
primary herpetic gingivostmatitis
five prominent characteristics of shingles are:
-painful -unilateral -erythema -vesicles -ulcers
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is prevalent in ________and cause ___________ on feet, mouth, and hands
-young children -ulcerations or vesicles
ulcerative lesion caused by trauma biting, vigorous brushing, eating hard pointed chips
traumatic ulcer
The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV/HHV-4) is transmitted how?
droplets
primary manifestation of HIV that is white with furrowed lines on lateral surface of the tongue is called_______
oral hairy leukoplakia
Hand-foot- and- mouth disease is caused by what virus?
Coxsackie virus
erythema, vesicles, pustules, and crusted lesions that are caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV/HHV3) are known as __________
chickenpox
four prominent characteristics of chickenpox are:
-erythema -vesicles -pustules -crusted
Traumatic ulcers: caused by? painful or painless? recurrent or not?
-caused by trauma biting, vigorous brushing, eating hard pointed chips -usually painful -7 to 14 day healing time unless trauma reoccurs
aphthous ulcer: caused by? are seen in what kind of client? painful or painless? recurrent or not?
- caused by stress, acidic, or trauma induced -incidence in smokers -painful -recurring
herpes simplex virus-1 (oral herpes/ HSV1) is common in what age of client?
young children
Herpangina is caused by what virus?
Coxsackie
reccurent cold sores, fever blisters found on lip border with vesicles that are ulcerated
herpes labialis
multinucleated giant cells present and very vascular causing deep reddish collor
peripheral giant cell granuloma
HHV-_____ or _________ is mostly in immunocompromised clients and causes oral mucosal ulcerations
HHV-5 or Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
recurrent and painful HSV infection of the fingers
herpetic whitlow
peripheral giant cell granuloma is more common in ________ then _________
women than men
which soft tissue lesion is multinucleated
peripheral giant cell granuloma
Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma are associated with which virus?
epstein-barr virus
the Coxsackie virus can cause what?
-Herpangina -Hand-Foot-and-Mouth
which soft tissue lesion is very vascular causing a deep reddish collor
peripheral giant cell granuloma
mononucleosus infection is caused by what virus?
epstein-barr virus (EBV or HHV-4)
A neoplastic lesion common in HIV infected clients
kaposi's sarcoma
herpes simplex virus ____ is genital herpes
HSV-2
varicella-zoster virus causes painful unilateral erythema, vesicles and ulcers that are known as ___________
shingles
which viral lesion/condition may cause trigeminal gaglion
herpes simplex virus-1 (oral herpes/ HSV-1)
which virus may cause tingling, itching, burning and redness prior to lesion appearing
Herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1/ oral herpes)
Section 6
(50 cards)
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome is also called what?
Erythema multiforme major
Sjogren syndrome: painful or painless? causes patient to lose what?
-painful or uncomfortable -lose papillae
___________ is associated with lichen planus and has fine, lace-like network of white lines and red, ulcerative areas
Wickham's striae
Which odontogenic cyst displaces unerupted teeth?
dentigerous cyst (follicular)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____.
epithelial rests of Malassez
stevens-johnson syndrome is associated with what condition?
erythema multiforme
Which odontogenic cyst is associated with Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Odontogenic kertocyst (OKC)/ Kertocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT)
clinically when seeing "Bulls eye" lesions, it usually refers to __________
erythema multiforme
A skin disease that may appear bilaterally as fine lace-like white lines on the inner cheek
oral lichen planus
what condition can be clinically seen with hemorrhagic crusting of lips and "bulls eye" lesions
erythema multiforme (Stevens-johnson syndrome)
Odontogenic cysts are lined with ________ tissue produced _______ tooth development
-epithelial tissue -during tooth development
Five different odontogenic cysts:
-dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) -lateral periodontal cyst -radicular cyst(periapical) -odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) OR keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT) -primordial cyst
dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst)are commonly seen where?
mandibular wisdom teeth and maxillary canines
odontogenic cysts are formed from what?
-the reduced enamel epithelium of the tooth crown -epithelial rests of Malassez (remnants of Hertwig root sheath) -epithelial rests of serres (remnants of dental lamina) -the tooth germ (enamel organ, dental papilla, and dental sac)
lateral periodontal cysts are common where?
between roots of manidibular premolars
Chronic discoid (cutaneous) is also known as ___________-
lupus erythematosis
Globulomaxillary cysts have what radiographic characteristics?
unilocular radiolucency teardrop shaped
a unilocular radiolucent odontogenic cyst located around the crown of an impacted tooth
dentigerous cyst (follicular)
Dentigerous cyst: radiolucent or radiopaque? multilocular or unilocular? located where?
-radiolucent -unilocular -around crown of impacted teeth
All of the following are odontogenic cysts except which one? lateral periodontal cyst primordial cyst globulomaxillary cyst dentigerous cyst
globulomaxillary is NON-odontogenic NOT odontogenic
___________ is an immunologic response to foods, chemicals, drugs or microbial infection
erythema multiforme
acute ulcerative condition of skin and mucous membranes
erythema multiforme
Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC or KCOT) are commonly found where?
posterior of the mandible rather than the maxilla
Wickham's striae is associated with which of the following conditions? Kapsoi's Sarcoma Lichen Planus Lupus Erythematosus Erythema Multiforme
lichen planus
Epithelial Rests of Malassez is what?
remnants of Hertwig's root sheath
Which odontogenic cyst is benign but progressive with a high recurrence?
odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) or Keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT)
What autoimmune disorder has periods of remission and has mucosa and skin ulcerations?
lupus erythematosis (chronic discoid)
What are the radiographical characteristics of a radicular(periapical) cyst?
well-circumscribed unilocular radiolucency
an odontogenic cyst found at the apices of necrotic tooth
radicular (periapical) cyst
dentigerous (follicular) cysts are radiographically seen how?
unilocular radiolucency
a long-term neuromuscular disease that has various degrees of skeletal muscle weakness
myasthenia gravis (MG)
"Butterfly" rash found on the face is what condition?
lupus erythematosis (chronic discoid)
stevens-johnson syndrome is usually triggered how?
multiple medication use
T/F If a patient has a lateral periodontal cyst, we need to probe the area to see how deep it is.
FALSE/ we are unable to probe the area
an autoimmune disease causing burning, discomfort, xerostomia, dry eyes, and may cause lose of papillae
Sjogren syndrome
Epithelial Rests of Serres is what?
remnants of the dental lamina
Is Hand-Foot-and-Mouth disease painless or painful?
painful
Which odontogenic cyst replaces a tooth?
primordial cyst
What is a residual cyst?
the remnant of a radicular cyst
an odontogenic cyst that is common between roots of manidbular premolars
lateral periodontal cyst
All the following are Non-odontogenic cysts except which one? Follicular cyst Incisive canal cyst Nasolacrimal cyst Nasopalatine Duct cyst
Follicular cyst is a odontogenic cyst
lateral periodontal cysts are more prevalent in___________
men
What is the treatment for a radicular (periapical) cyst?
tooth extraction or endodontic treatment
a primordial cyst has what radiographic characteristics ?
unilocular radiolucency
cysts of the oral cavity are _______ lined, often fluid filled with ________ fluid
-epithelial lined -straw colored fluid
Odontogenic keratocyst are associated with which of the following? Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Basal cell carcinoma Melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
a non-odontogenic cyst found between maxillary lateral and canine incisors
globulomaxillary cyst
Odontogenic keratocysts are seen how radiographically?
unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
Remnants of the dental lamina are known as?
epithelial rests of Serres
T/F With Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, multiple mucosal surfaces are ulcerated
true
Section 7
(50 cards)
Sun exposure is a factor for which precancerous lesion?
actinic keratosis
Carcinoma-in-situ is also known as ______
dysplasia
All of the following are precancerous except which one? Snuff Dippers keratosis Carcinoma-in-situ Actinic keratosis Actinic cheilitis
Snuff dippers keratosis is a cancer
Where is a nasolabial(nasolacrimal) cyst located?
over the maxillary canine region
bony protuberance on hard palate
palatal torus
a possible premalignancy to squamous cell carcinoma
dysplasia (carcinoma-in-situ)
most dangerous form of skin cancer
melanoma
Irregularly shaped and scaly plaque describe what precancerous lesion?
actinic keratosis
a precancerous lesion on the lower lip
actinic cheilitis
Which cancerous lesion is associated with tobacco use, alcohol, and sun exposure?
squamous cell carcinoma
Most common type of skin cancer is what?
basal cell carcinoma
A cancerous lesion that has leukoplakia that leads to a red, white, hardened or indurated ulcer
squamous cell carcinoma
multiple myeloma causes what?
-anemia -painful bone
Which type of cyst may cause swelling?
nasolabial/nasolacrimal cyst
Which type of cyst may lift the ala of the nose?
nasolabial (nasolacrimal)cyst
ameloblastoma is usually located where?
posterior mandible
snuff dippers keratosis is commonly associated with: (3)
-gingival recession -tooth staining -decay
What cancer has punched out radiolucent bone, including the jaw?
multiple myeloma
T/F Snuff dippers keratosis is a leukoplakia area with increased risk of development of malignancy
true
Are cementoma lesions on vital or nonvital teeth?
vital
What is the most prevalent area to be affected by basal cell carcinoma?
sun exposed skin
a benign bone tumor that is linked to tooth development
odontoma
What type of cyst has a heart shaped appearance anterior to the nasal spine?
nasopalatine duct cyst (incisive canal)
Multiple myeloma are __________ tumors
bone marrow
Precancerous skin lesion that may lead to Squamous cell carcinoma
actinic keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma is often seen where?
lateral surfaces of tongue or floor of the mouth
T/F Squamous cell carcinoma is prognosis dependent on the extent of the disease.
true
HPV is a risk factor for what type of cancerous lesion?
squamous cell carcinoma
Which bone condition resembles teeth?
odontoma
Where is a nasopalatine duct cyst usually located?
midline of maxillary anteriors
A precancerous lesion that is red, white, ulcerated and/or crusted appearance
actinic cheilitis
Treatment modalities for Squamous cell carcinoma may cause"
-xerostomia -redness -caries
bone condition that looks like soap-bubble or honey-combed radiolucency
ameloblastoma
a pigmented cancerous tumor
melanoma
palatal torus is more common in who?
women
Most common oral cancer is what?
squamous cell carcinoma
cementomas are commonly where?
mandibular anterior
bony protuberance on buccal and facial areas of the jaw
exostoses
the presence of cells of an abnormal type within a tissue, which may signify a stage preceding the development of cancer
dysplasia (carcinoma-in-situ)
odontomas are primarily associated with ________ and _______ tissue
enamel and dentin (kinda confused on this page 170)
exostoses are bony protuberance on the ______ and _____areas of the jaw
buccal and facial
mixed radio-opague/lucent lesions on the apex of vital teeth
cementoma
Most common bone condition
odontoma
Ameloblastoma: unilocular or multilocular? radiolucent or radiopague? recurrent or not?
-multilocular -radiolucent -high recurrence rate
Cementoma: radiopague or radiolucent? commonly around what teeth? located where around the tooth?
-mixed radiopague and radiolucent -mandibular anteriors -apex of vital teeth
Multiple Myeloma: What type of prognosis? Treatment?
-poor prognosis -often fatal
bony mass usually at midline of hard palate
maxillary tori (board alert-look for this on radiographs)
Cementoma are prevalent in who?
african american middle aged women
Snuff dippers keratosis is clinically seen how?
wrinkled, corrugated white lesion at site of placement
Which type of cancer do we recommend non-alcoholic mouthwash to?
squamous cell carcinoma
Section 8
(50 cards)
focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is also known as?
condensing osteitis
Does florid cemento-osseous dysplasia affect dentulous or edentulous areas?
can be seen in both areas
osteonecrosis of the jaw is associated with what medication?
bisphosphonate therapy
T/f Ulcers on the gingiva or hard palate are not recurrent aphthous ulcers.
true
Any swelling or collection of cells appearing as a mass or lump is called a _________ and commonly used to refer to a ______
-tumor -refer to a neoplasm
What is a solid, well-circumscribed, palpable mass greater to or equal to 1cm that arises from deeper tissues
nodules
in what disease are bones malformed, they are larger and thicker?
pagets disease (osteitis deformans)
All of the following are oral characteristics of cancer patients except which one? linear gingival erythema dysgeusia mucositis xerostomia
linear gingival erythema (this is a characteristic of HIV patients)
radiopaque lesion at apex of inflamed or necrotic tooth
condensing osteitis (focal sclerosing osteomyelitis)
three basic immune defects that may predispose the patient to the development of recurrent aphthous ulcers are:
-decreased mucosal barrier -increased antigenic exposure -inherited or acquired immunodysregulation
is condensing osteitis radiopaque or radiolucent?
radiopaque
bony mass on lingual surface of mandible
mandibular tori
gardners syndrome has _______ polyps and _______cysts
-premalignant colon polyps -epidermoid cyst
What are small circumscribed lesions usually less than 1cm in diameter that are elevated or protrudes above the surface of normal surrounding tissue?
papule
rare autosomal disease that causes hypoplastic or absent clavicles
cleidocranial dysostosis (dysplasia)
ulcerative lesions of the oral cavity affect ____% of the population
20%
dense masses of cementum or bone seen in multiple quadrants?
florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
Oral manifestations of multiple sclerosis may include all of the following except which one? paresthesia facial palsy gingival hyperplasia trigeminal neuralgia
gingival hyperplasia
____________ radiolucency which means many small areas that aren't joined are seen radiographically in patients with Cherubism
multifocal
T/F Recurrent aphthous ulcers affect keratinized tissue.
false
a benign anomaly which appears as a gray to white film on the buccal mucosa, gingiva an opaque appearance, is more common in African Americans, and no treatment is required describes which condition?
leukoedema
What is a small (<1mm), well defined, nonelevated area of discoloration on the skin or mucosa?
macule
Which of the following is mixed radiolucent/radiopaque? cementoma condensing osteitis periapical cemental dysplaisa florid cemento-osseous dysplasia ameloblastoma
cementoma periapical cemental dysplasia florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
What is a small, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter that contains serous fluid?
vesicle
T/F Periapical cemental dysplasia (false cementoma) has cortical bone expansion
false/ does NOT
disease that has "Cotton-wool" radiopacities
paget's disease (osteitis deformans)
periapical cemental dysplasia (false cementoma) is common where?
lower anterior teeth
familial autosomal disease that have multiple osteomas and tumors
gardners syndrome
T/F Recurrent aphthous ulcers are covered by white-yellowish fibrinopurulent exudate.
true
cleidocranial dysostosis is associated with which kind of tooth irregularity?
supernumerary teeth
fibromas present as palpable ______
nodules
Periapical cemental dysplasia: common in who? radiolucent or radiopaque? involved teeth are vital or nonvital?
-middle aged african american women -mixed radiolucent/radiopaque -vital
_________ occurs as a cluster of small ulcers on loose nonkeratinized squamous epithelium and has no prodrome or cluster of small vesicles
herpetiform aphthous ulcers
Lipomas and carcinomas are examples of benign and malignant _________
neoplasm
is mandibular tori more commonly unilateral or bilateral?
bilateral
maxillary and mandibular tori are more common in who?
women
Gardner's syndrome is associated with what tooth irregularity?
supernumerary teeth
T/F Recurrent aphthous ulcers are surrounded by an erythematous border or halo?
true
pagets disease (osteitis deformans) is high risk for _______
osteosarcoma
Which lesion is related to Reiter's syndrome? migratory glossitis herpangina pyogenic granuloma lipoma
migratory glossitis
linear clefts or cracks occurring in soft tissues are known as what?
fissure
a bone lesion that is seen at the apices of vital teeth and is mixed radiolucent/radiopaque
periapical cemental dysplasia
Which oral condition could result from the administration of a glucocorticoid?
brown hairy tongue
Is mandibular tori unilateral or bilateral?
can be both bilateral is more common
Which lesion is present at birth and needs to be excised? congenital epulis lipoma ranula aphthous ulcer
congenital epulis
T/F Recurrent aphthous ulcers are usually round or oval in shape.
true
What are larger fluid-filled lesions (>5mm) that are observed in blistering conditions such as pemphigus and pemphigoid?
bulla
A young patient presents with painful oral lesions that occur on the keratinized tissue. The gingiva appears inflamed and swollen and the patients mother reports that the child has experienced fever and malaise recently. The signs and symptoms of this condition most likely mean that the patient is suffering from what?
acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
pagets disease (Osteitis deformans) is more common in who?
men older than 50 years old
____________ describes the base of a lesion that is flat or broad
sessile
Section 9
(50 cards)
strawberry tongue is associated with which of the following diseases? Scarlet fever Addisons disease down syndrome pagets disease
scarlet fever
If a patient has a positive PPD test, what is the next diagnostic step?
-chest xray followed by a sputum culture
Which of the following cysts appear "heart shaped" and appear well on an occlusal radiograph?
nasopalatine duct cyst
If active TB is suspected in a patient, a _______ will be taken
sputum culture
What is a symptomatic form of erythematous candidiasis characterized by diffuse atrophy of the filiform papillae on the dorsal tongue, creating a smooth, bald appearance
acute atrophic candidiasis
syphilis is treated how?
with intramuscular or intravenous penicillin
The most common precipitating factors for developing thrush are:
-the use of broad spectrum antibiotic therapy -immunosupression either from underlying disease or therapeutic immunosupression with corticosteroids
What is a painful bacterial infection that involves inflammation and ulcers in the gums?
Vincent's angina or NUG
__________ is a swelling that is similar to hives
angioedema
Kaposi's sarcoma is also referred to as what viral, ulcerative lesion?
Human Herpes Virus 8 (HHV-8)
what causes "re strawberry tongue" in patients with scarlet fever?
by the fourth or fifth day of the infection, the white coating disappears to reveal an erythematous surface underneath
Tuberculosis is a potentially life threatening infection caused by _______ that infects _____ of the worlds population
-mycobacterium tuberculosis -1/3 of the worlds population
about ____% of patients will progress to ______ syphilis, which is the most serous stage
30% tertiary stage
Which of the following is a white, papillary exophytic lesion resembling a papilloma? verruca vulgaris condyloma acuminatum tuberculosis actinomycosis primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
verruca vulgaris
What infections clinical features are white coating on the dorsal of the tongue and the fungiform papillae becomes hyperplastic
scarlet fever
_________ represents an increase in the thickness of keratin on the dorsal tongue that is often mistakenly attributed to candidal infection.
coated tongue
TB infection is diagnosed by a _______ skin test, but that doesnt distinguish between latent and active disease
purified protein derivative (PPD)
Which cyst shows well on an occlusal radiograph?
Nasopalatine duct cyst
__________ is characterized by the formation of painful abscesses in the mouth, lungs, or gastrointestinal tract
actinomycosis
what causes "white strawberry tongue" in patients with scarlet fever?
the fungiform papillae become hyperplastic and can be see through the white coating on the dorsal tongue
When are patients most contagious with syphilis?
primary and secondary stages
angular cheilitis is caused by infection with _________ and/or ______
-C. albicans -S. aureus
condyloma acuminatum is considered to be a _____________ disease most commonly found on the _______
-sexually transmitted -genitalia
_______ syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular skin rash that is distributed all over the body
secondary (disseminated)
___________ is a pink, papllary lesion that is usually more diffuse than a papilloma or verruca vulgaris
condyloma acuminatum
_________ is usually chronic, slowly progressing and nonpainful. A "wooden" area of fibrosis develops initially followed by formation of a central abscess
cervicofacial actinomycosis
___________ is usually an extension of infection from the mandibular molar teeth into the floor of the mouth since their roots lie below the attachment of the mylohyoid muscle
Ludwig's angina
a patient with down syndrome typically presents with a _________ tongue
fissured
T/F TB infection is synonymous with active TB disease.
FALSE/ it is not
_____ syphilis is a symptom free and lesion free period that may last anywhere from 1-30 years
latent
Chancre is a painless ulcer seen in what clinical stage of syphilis?
primary
a macular or papular skin rash is characteristic of which stage of syphilis?
secondary
What is the most diagnositc feature of scarlet fever?
the skin rash that looks like a "sunburn with goose bumps"
dysphagia means what?
difficulty swallowing
syphilis is an infection caused by a spirochete bacterium called _____________
treponema pallidum
The appearance of this lesion may be identical to a squamous papilloma but it is often characterized by white pointed surface projections and a broad base.
verruca vulgaris
when a person is exposured to M. tuberculosis and it causes a localized chronic inflammatory reaction in the lungs, this is called _____
primary TB
the most common location for cerviofacial actinomycosis is where?
the soft tissue overlying the angle of the mandible
__________ is characterized by adherent white "cottage cheese like" plaques that consist of C. albicans
pseudomembranous candidiasis
a blue and purple macule on the soft palate is the clinical appearance of _______
kaposis sarcoma
Which of the following inflammatory soft tissue lesions appear as a pebbly, coblestone appearance of the hard palate and occurs under a maxillary denture if it is never removed?
papillary hyperplasia of the palate
Which of the following is an opportunistic infection likely to be found in an immunocompromised patient?
oral candidiasis
What is an infection of the skin that is commonly known as a wart?
verruca vulgaris
With ________, about 2-12 lesions are usually present and begin as small vesicles on nonkeratinized tissue that rupture to form shallow ulcers
herpangina
scarlet fever is a systemic infection that most often occurs secondary to ______
streptococcal pharyngitis
_______ syphilis occurs upon infection with T. pallidum causing a painless ulcer called a chancre
primary
a type of cellulitis that involves inflammation of the tissues of the floor of the mouth which often occurs following infection of the roots of the teeth or after mouth trauma is called _____________
Ludwig's angina
Nasopalatine duct cysts appear heart shaped due to what?
the anterior nasal spine
glossopyrosis is another term for ___________
burning mouth syndrome
T/F Paget's disease is related to abnormal bone growth.
true
Section 10
(22 cards)