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stratified squamous function
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Section 1
(50 cards)
stratified squamous function
protection
coron-
crown, coronary
Simple Squamous
- 1 layer of thin, flat cells - Secretion - located in the alveoli of lungs
ana-
apart from
dys-
difficult, painful
-chondr-
cartilage, rib
abdomin/o-
abdomen
simple columnar location
linings of intestines
inguin-
groin
radi/o-
radiation
front-
front, forehead
-gnosis
knowledge of an abnormal condition
Simple Columnar
- 1 layer of elongated cells - absorption - located in the linings of the intestines
pseudostratified columnar location
linings of respiratory passages
super-
above
dent-
tooth
pseudostratified columnar function
protection
-vertebr-
spine
umbilic-
belly button, navel, umbilicus
simple squamous function
Secretion
dia-
complete
cyt/o-
cell
ventr-
belly
-tom-
section, cut
sagitt-
arrow
dist-
away from the center
caud-
tail
pyrex-
fever, heat
anter-
before; front part
dors-
back
lumb-
lower back, loin
hem/o-
blood
-gastr-
stomach
Pseudostratified Columnar
- Not layered! Cells vary in shape - Protection - located in the linings of respiratory passages
col-
colon
-tens-
pressure
simple cuboidal function
protection
cran/i-
cranium, skull
cost/o-
rib
Simple Cuboidal
- 1 layer of cube-shaped cells - protection - located on the surface of ovaries
proxim-
nearest
simple columnar function
absorption
-gnose
recognize an abnormal condition
simple squamous location
Alveoli of lungs
-pelv-
pelvis
cephal-
head
simple cuboidal location
surface of ovaries
poster-
coming behind
Stratified Squamous
- 2 or more layers of thin, flat cells - protection - located in the superficial layer of skin (epidermis)
infer-
below, beneath
Section 2
(50 cards)
What are the two reasons that cartilage heals slowly
Slow cell reproduction, Not close to blood vessel
Types of connective tissue cells
Fibroblasts, Mast cells, Macrophages
blood function
transport
elastic cartilage function
support
Stratified Columnar
- 2 or more layers of elongated cells - secretion - located in part of the male urethra and linings of larger ducts of excretory glands
hyaline cartilage location
soft part of nose
transitional function
Ability to stretch
Cartilage
Hyaline, Fibrocartilage, Elastic
stratified cuboidal location
lining of ducts in mammary glands
The 6 functions of connective tissues
Bind Support Protect Fill spaces Store fat Produce blood cells
Areolar connective tissue
- Support - beneath the skin and between muscles
Adipose connective tissue
- store fat - behind the eyeballs
stratified columnar location
part of the male urethra
dense regular location
tendons and ligaments
Ligaments
Bone to bone
Stratified Cuboidal
- 2 or more layers of cube-shaped cells - protection - located in the linings of ducts in mammary glands
transitional location
inner lining of the bladder
dense regular function
binds
fibrocartilage function
protection
What are epithelial tissues anchored to
The basement membrane
Fibroblasts
Most common connective tissue cell, fixed star shaped Produce fibers by secreting proteins
blood location
cardiovascular system
Mast Cells
(Fixed) Large and widely distributed; found near blood vessels 1. Heparin- helps with clotting 2. Histamine- promote inflammatory response
stratified cuboidal function
protection
Blood connective tissue
- Transport - Cardiovascular system
Elastic cartilage connective tissue
- support - external ear
Fibrocartilage connective tissue
- protect - between bones in the Spinal column
stratified squamous location
superficial layer of skin (epidermis)
hyaline cartilage function
support
areolar function
support
Hyaline cartilage connective tissue
- Support - soft part of nose
Types of fibrous connective tissue
Areolar, Adipose, Reticular, Dense
Dense, regular connective tissue
- Binds - Tendons, ligaments
bone location
skeletal system
stratified columnar function
secretion
Transitional
- ability to stretch - inner lining of the urinary bladder
Membranous epithelial tissue shapes
Squamos, Cubodial, Columnar
areolar location
between the skin and the muscle
ECM
Ground substance of extracellular macromolecules of collagen, enzymes, and glycoproteins Provides structural & biochemical support for surrounding cells Can be fluid, semi-solid, or solid
Collagenous
Thicker bands of collagen protein; flexible but only slightly elastic; excellent tensile strength
adipose function
stores fat
The 4 functions of epithelial tissue
Secretion, Excretion, Absorption, and Protection
What are connective tissue distinguishing characteristics
Most have good blood supply Cells are farther apart than epithelial cells with extracellular matrix in between
Macrophages
Large, wandering cells WBC(white blood cells)(histiocytes) are phagocytes—> engulf foreign particles
elastic cartilage location
external ear
fibrocartilage location
between bones in spinal column
Membranous epithelial tissue layers
Simple, Stratified
bone function
support
adipose location
behind eyeballs
Bone connective tissue
- Support - Skeletal system
Section 3
(50 cards)
Tissue
A group of cells working together to do a very specific job
Merocrine
Glands that release fluid by exocytosis (Description of secretion) fluid product released through the cell membrane by exocytosis (Example) salivary glands, pancreatic glands, sweat glands of the skin
Plicae
permanent ridges "corkscrew" along inner surface of intestine
cecum
the appendix is attached to...
Three unique characteristics about epithelial tissues
Lack true blood supply Cells readily divide (healing) Cells are tightly packed
one foot
how long is the esophagus
Taenia Coli
What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?
villi and plicae
what are enlarged in the jejunum
peristalsis
the esophagus uses...
Tendons
Muscle to bone
Four types of tissues that form humans
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
villi
finger-like projections along surface
Stratified
Multiple layers
Absorptive cells
small projections along surface of columnar cells
Duodenum
what is the first segment of the small intestine
5 ft
how long is the large intestine (colon)
Duodenal glands
what type of glands are found in the small intestine
Ascending/descending colon, rectum, pancreas, duodenum
What are the digestive organs in the retroperitoneal space
lacteal
villi contain what to absorb fat
2-3
what is the ph of the stomach
Holocrine
Glands that release entire cells that disintegrate to release cell secretions (Description of secretion) disintegrated entire cells filled with secretory products (Example) sebaceous glands of the skin
Specialized connective tissue
Bone, blood, and cartilage
protein
the stomach digests what type of food
Connective Tissue Proper
Loose & dense
Ileum
what is the third segment of the small intestine
What are the two types of collagenous fibers
Ligaments & tendons
stratified squamous
what type of epithelial tissue lines the esophagus
Simple
Single layer
3
how many muscle layers are in the stomach
Columnar
Column shaped cell
pepsinogens
chief cells make..
microvilli
Fingerlike extensions of plasma membrane of apical epithelial cells, increase surface area, aid in absorbtion, exist on every moist epithelia, but most dense in small intestine and kidney
Squamos
Thin fat cell
jejunum
what segment of the small intestines is the site from most nutrient absorption
Enamel
hardest substance produced by the body
mucus
what coats the stomach to protect against self destruction
Uvula
what helps guide food down the pharynx
alcohol dehydrogenase
the stomach secretes what to breakdown alcohol before it enters the blood
Acid reflux
what means there is damaged tissue in the esophagus
water and vitamin absorption, compaction, defecation
3 functions of the colon
Cuboidal
Cube shaped cell
Jejunum
what is the second segment of the small intestine
Lower sphincter
what part of the esophagus is weak
HCl
parietal cells make...
Tongue
what moves food over teeth for mastificaton (chewing)
rectum
colon leads to..
Reticular Fibers
(Spider webs) type of thin delicate collagenous fiber; highly branched and form support networks
pepsin
gastric glands secrete...
Apocrine
Glands that lose small portions of their glandular cell bodies during secretion (Description of secretion) cellular product and portions of the free ends of glandular cells pinch off during secretion (Example) mammary glands
Elastic fibers
(Vocal cords) composed of protein elastin; weaker than collagenous fibers; change and regain shape easily
Section 4
(50 cards)
Papillae
rugae
Mesentery proper
Attaches small intestines to back wall of abdominal cavity
submucosal plexus
Uvula
The trachea in a microscope has...
cartilage rings
Mesocolon
Parotid, sub-lingual, sub-mandibular
3 glands that digest carbs
Large intestine
Clear goblet cells, absence of villi, main function is water absorption
lesser omentum
Suspends the stomach from the liver
myenteric plexus
layer between inner circular and outer longitudinal muscle
greater omentum
covers all organs
falciform ligament
Suspends the liver from the diaphragm & anterior abdominal wall
Capillary network
cardia
where esophagus and stomach meets
dentin
What is different in a stomach microscope slide
3 layers of tunica muscularis and rugae
apical foramen of tooth
circled part
Great omentum
"fat apron"
Soft palate
Hard palate
A in picture
fundus
Falciform ligament
canines (2)
Premolars (4)
incisors (4)
carbs, proteins, fats
the pancreas digests...
root of tooth
Enamel
A
Molars (6)
lingual frenulum
Lacteal
muscularis mucosae
first brown layer of GI tract diagram
cementum
H
Mechanical digestion
Organs of upper alimentary canal breakdown food into smaller and smaller pieces
lesser omentum
Mesentery proper
The esophagus has what type of epithelial
stratified squamous
Duodenum
pancreas secretes pancreatic enzymes into duodenum
root canal
mesocolon
Attaches large intestines to back wall of abdominal cavity
pylorus
hole between small intestine
tongue, teeth, salivary glands, and tonsils
what structures are part of the oral cavity
Pulp cavity
mesenteries
CT that attaches organs to body wall
salivary amylase
what enzyme produces saliva
converts glucose to glycogen, maintain blood glucose levels, breakdown fats, store vitamins and minerals
functions of the liver
pylorus sphincter
Chemical digestion
digestion that occurs via enzymes produced by accessory glands
crown of tooth
I
Section 5
(50 cards)
Ascending colon
What are the two types of metabolic reactions?
anabolic and catabolic
what substances form during dehydration synthesis?
polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins
lesser curvature
hydrolysis
where a molecule of water is inserted into polymer which is split into two smaller molecules
Anabolic Reactions
reactions where larger molecules are constructed from smaller ones; requires energy
Catabolic Reactions
reactions where larger molecules are broken down; releases energy; is reversible
Haustra
where in atp is energy stored
the last phosphate bond
common hepatic duct
Hepatic portal vein
by what process does anabolism occur
dehydration synthesis
Cecum
Plicae
cofactors
enzymes that only become active when combined with a non protein component
Hepatic artery
illiocecal valve
valve between small and large intestine
energy
the capacity to do work
greater curvature
what happens to make a reaction occurs? (enzyme)
active sites on the enzyme combine with the substrate
name two examples of cofactors
copper or iron
sublingual gland
conenzymes
small organic cofactors
what determines what substrate an enzyme binds with
the proteins shape
Parotid gland
by what process does catabolism occur?
hydrolysis
pancreatic duct
what three reactions make up cellular respiration
glycolysis citric acid cycle electron transport chain
catalyst
anything that speeds up a reaction by lowering the energy required to preform that action
cystic duct
appendix
what does anabolism provide
the substances needed for growth and repair
name all the factors that can alter an enzyme
heat, pH extremes, chemicals, electricity, radiation, etc.
enzymes
another name for catalysts
Descending colon
name some common forms of energy
heat, light, sound, electrical energy, mechanical energy, and chemical energy
Sigmoid colon
jejunum
what does the oxidation of glucose do?
release chemical energy in the cell
aerobic respiration
occurs within the mitochondria; requires oxygen; causes a much greater gain of atp molecules
Transverse colon
submandibular gland
Duodenum
describe the specifications of enzymes
each enzyme is specific and only acts on one kind of substrate; the speed of enzymatic reactions depend on the number of enzyme and substrate molecules available
ileum
how many amino acids are naturally occurring in the body
20 amino acids
how does dehydration synthesis form fats?
glycerol and fatty acids bond
dehydration synthesis
removing a molecule of water to join two smaller molecules
common bile duct
Taenia coli
Section 6
(50 cards)
what is the first step of cellular respiration
glycolysis
Dendrites
Receive impulse from the pre-synaptic axon terminals and they direct them to the cell body
what is the rate of a metabolic pathway determined by
a regulatory enzyme responsible for one of its steps
plex-
interweaving
what kind of reaction is krebs
aerobic
dendr-
tree
Schwann cells
Make up the axon and they are coated in a myelin sheath
Soma
sens-
feeling
electron transport chain
where high energy electrons are combined; adding phosphates to create the majority of atp molecules
Nucleus
peri-
around
Axon terminal
metabolic pathway
a sequence of enzyme-controlled reactions
what is another name for citric adic cycle
krebs
Myelin Sheath
what else (other than atp) does krebs produce
high electricity electrons
Cell body
Receives the impulse from the dendrites and moves it to the nucleus
hormone
a chemical messenger released from endocrine glands that travel in the bloodstream to target organs to cause a desired action
why or how do we get so many more atp in electron transport chain
because of oxidative phosphorylation
where does glycolysis occur
in the cytosol
what else (other than atp) does glycolysis produce
high energy electrons
Myelin sheath
Lipid insulator that surrounds the Schwann cells and speeds up the impulse and directs it to where it needs to go
mening-
membrane
what kind of reaction is glycolysis
anaerobic
where does citric adic cycle occur
in the mitochondria
Nodes
Gaps between Schwann cells where there is no myelin, which allows for ion exchange to keep the impulse moving
what are the final products of glucose oxidation
carbon dioxide, water, and energy
what must be true of an enzyme in both an anabolic or catabolic sequence of reactions
the enzymes must act in a specific order
-lemm
rind or peel
how does a hormone travel
via bloodstream
what is the net gain of glycolysis
2 atp
oxidative phosphorylation
a process where high energy electrons are combined with oxygen
where does electron transport chain occur
in the mitochondria
what is the net gain of electron transport chain
32-34 atp
what is the net gain of krebs
2 atp
moto-
moving
ax-
axis
funi-
small cord or fiber
Nucleus
Processes the impulse and moves it to the axon for firing
Node of Ravier
what kind of reaction is electron transport chain
aerobic
Axon terminals
Receive impulses from axon and send them to the post synaptic dendrites of another neuron
krebs
each 6-carbon glucose= 2 3-carbon pyruvic acid molecules
glycolysis
the splitting of 6-carbon glucose that occurs through a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps
Dendrite
give three examples of hormones in digestion
cck, secretin, and gastrin
Schwann cell
Axon
Axon
Fires the impulse to the axon terminals
Section 7
(50 cards)
Peripheral nervous system
example of peri-
Spinal Cord
XI. Accessory nerve
Cerebellum
Olfactory Bulb and Tract
sense of smell
Brain Stem
IV. Trochlear nerve
Frontal Lobe
Abducens
moves the eyes, conditions of the muscles
Trochlear
moves eyes
Hypoglossal
transmit to muscles that move the tongue
IX. Glossopharyngeal nerve
funiculus
example of funi-
Facial
transmits impulses associated with taste receptors. Motor fibers transmit impulses to muscles of facial expression, tear glands, and salivary glands
Glossopharyngeal
transmit and receive impulses from the pharynx, tonsils, tongue, and carotid artery
Temporal Lobe
What number is the Oculomotor Nerve?
III
VII. Facial nerve
neurilemma
example of -lemm
Optic and Optic Tract
sense of sight
Vagus
transmit impulses associated with speech and swallowing. Transmit impulses to the heart, smooth muscles, and glands
Ventricle
example of ventr
Occipital Lobe
X. Vagus nerve
What number is the Optic Nerve?
II
Choroid plexus
example of plex-
motor neuron
example of moto-
Accessory
Transmit impulses to the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx. Transmit impulses to the muscles of the neck and back
Sensory neuron
example of sens-
ventr-
belly or stomach
meninges
example of mening-
What number is the Trochlear Nerve?
IV
Vestibulocochlear
sense of balance and sense of hearing
V. Trigeminal nerve
Oculomotor
raise eyebrows, focus, eye movement
VI. Abducens nerve
ganglion
example of gangli-
XII. Hypoglossal nerve
What number is the Olfactory Nerve?
I
Trigeminal
transmits from the scalp, forehead, upper lip, skin of the face. Impulses to the muscles of mouth and mastication
II. Optic nerve
Synapse
example of syn-
Axon
example of -ax
gangli
a swelling
I. olfactory nerve
Dendrite
example of dendr-
III. Oculomotor nerve
syn-
together
VIII. Vestibulocochlear nerve
Parietal Lobe
Section 8
(50 cards)
Hypothalamus (front view)
Parietal Lobe (medial view)
Frontal Lobe (superior view)
I. Olfactory
What number is the Vagus Nerve?
X
XI. Accessory
IV. Trochlear
VII. Facial
Temporal Lobe (middle view)
Occipital Lobe (back view)
Thalamus (back view)
Cerebrum
Occipital Lobe (middle view)
II. Optic
What number is the Facial Nerve?
VII
VIII. Vestibulocohlear
Temporal Lobe (front view)
V. Trigeminal
Temporal Lobe (inferior view)
Temporal Lobe (side view)
What number is the Glossopharyngeal Nerve?
IX
What number is the Hypoglossal Nerve?
XII
Hypothalamus (Back view)
Gyri (gyrus)
What number is the Vestibulocohlear Nerve?
VIII
Corpus Callosum (superior view)
Thalamus (inferior view)
Parietal Lobe (side view)
Thalamus (superior view)
What number is the Trigeminal Nerve?
V
Cerebellum (side view)
What number is the Accessory Nerve?
XI
Corpus Callosum (inferior view)
Occipital Lobe (side view)
What number is the Abducens Nerve?
VI
Corpus Callosum (back view)
VI. Abducens
Sulci (sulcus)
X. Vagus
Corpus Callosum (front view)
Thalamus (middle view)
Corpus Callosum (middle view)
III. Oculomotor
Hypothalamus (middle view)
Thalamus (front view)
XII. Hypoglossal
Parietal Lobe (Back view)
Frontal Lobe (inferior view)
IX. Glossopharyngeal
Frontal Lobe (side view)
Section 9
(50 cards)
masseter
Sodium(Na+) across the sarcolemma enters the T-tubules causing the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release its stored calcium(Ca+) into the sarcoplasm.
Calcium(Ca+) in the sarcoplasm binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move aside, exposing the binding sites on the actin molecule for the myosin cross bridges. Myosin cross bridges attach to the binding sites on actin.
Hippocampus (back view)
medulla oblongata (sheep brain)
Amygdala (side view)
hypothalamus (sheep brain)
Cerebellum (side view)
Pons (front view)
Medulla Oblongata (side view)
Hippocampus (front view)
Amygdala (inferior view)
Amygdala (front view)
Cerebellum (inferior view)
Midbrain (front view)
Pons (inferior view)
Pons (side view)
Cerebellum (back view)
frontalis
Midbrain (inferior view)
Midbrain (back view)
orbicularis oris
thalamus (sheep brain)
occipitalis
Medulla Oblongata (superior view)
acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft will bind to receptors in the folded sarcolemma. This causes the sodium(Na+) channels to open and sodium(Na+) to rush in, depolarizing and spreading out across the sarcolemma.
Broca's area (side view)
Pons (superior view)
Hippocampus (superior view)
orbicularis oculi
Cerebellum (front view)
Cerebellum (superior view)
cerebellum (sheep brain)
buccinator
Medulla Oblongata (inferior view)
Medulla Oblongata (front view)
Pons (back view)
zygomaticus
Midbrain (superior view)
Hippocampus (side view)
Medulla Oblongata (back view)
cerebrum (sheep brain)
Hippocampus (inferior view)
Hippocampus (side view)
Pons (Side View)
Calcium binds to troponin exposing binding sites on actin. Myosin cross bridges bind to actin. Myosin cross bridges pulls the actin molecule in a "Power Stroke," releasing ADP+P. ATP attaches to cross bridge and breaks it free from actin. ATPase splits ATP into ADP+P, returning the cross bridge to the "cocked position"
Midbrain (side view)
Midbrain (side view)
pons (sheep brain)
Wernicke's Area (side view)
Section 10
(50 cards)
levator scapulae
transversus abdominis
vastus medialis
latissimus dorsi
pectoralis major
vastus lateralis
Sternocleidomastoid (SCM)
pectoralis minor
gastrocnemius
vastus lateralis
rectus femoris
teres minor
triceps
soleus
rectus femoris
biceps brachii
biceps femoris
serratus anterior
semimembranosus
internal oblique
supraspinatus
rhomboid major
teres major
supinator
brachialis
sartorius
gluteus medius
subscapularis
rectus abdominis
gastrocnemius
coracobrachialis
platysma
trapezius
tensor fasciae latae (TFL)
tibialis anterior
soleus
pronator teres
semitendinosus
extensor digitorum longus
brachioradialis
tibialis anterior
flexor digitorum longus
sartorius
external oblique
gluteus maximus
deltoid
infraspinatus
tensor fasciae latae
gracilis
temporalis
Section 11
(50 cards)
external oblique
sternohyoid
Illiacus
gracilis
trapezius
flexor digitorum brevis
rectus abdominis
orbicularis oculi
vastus medialis
extensor digitorum longus
piriformis
semitendinosus
adductor magnus
flexor digitorum longus
vastus lateralis
abductor digiti minimi
orbicularis oculi
adductor longus
orbicularis oris
extensor digitorum brevis
adductor magnus
buccinator
psoas major
buccinator
rectus abdominis
semitendinosus
transversus abdominis
sternocleidomastoid
masseter
gracilis
gluteus maximus
adductor longus
external oblique
psoas major
semimembranosus
gluteus maximus
plantar aponeurosis
sternocleidomastoid
sternocleidomastoid
transversus abdominis
sternocleidomastoid
Illiacus
semimembranosus
biceps femoris
orbicularis oris
extensor digitorum brevis
sternohyoid
trapezius
pectineus
masseter
Section 12
(50 cards)
splenius capitis
splenius capitis
splenius capitis
temporalis
temporalis
sternohyoid
semispinalis capitis
masseter
pectoralis major
deltoid
buccinator
orbicularis oris
sternohyoid
masseter
orbicularis oris
teres minor
masseter
masseter
orbicularis oris
platysma
trapezius
pectoralis major
buccinator
serratus anterior
splenius capitis
sternocleidomastoid
orbicularis oris
pectoralis major
orbicularis oris
pectoralis major
infraspinatus
orbicularis oris
serratus anterior
buccinator
platysma
deltoid
sternocleidomastoid
buccinator
teres minor
trapezius
trapezius
deltoid
serratus anterior
trapezius
semispinalis capitis
zygomaticus
deltoid
buccinator
buccinator
infraspinatus
Section 13
(50 cards)
pectoralis major
pronator teres
pectoralis major
pectoralis major
flexor carpi radialis
biceps brachii
flexor carpi ulnaris
triceps
pronator teres
subscapularis
biceps brachii
brachialis
biceps brachii
pronator teres
pronator teres
triceps
subscapularis
brachialis
pectoralis major
deltoid
flexor carpi radialis
biceps brachii
teres major
latissimus dorsi
coracobrachialis
biceps brachii
pronator teres
pronator teres
teres major
extensor digitorum
flexor carpi ulnaris
latissimus dorsi
supinator
brachialis
flexor carpi radialis
brachioradialis
biceps brachii
brachialis
biceps brachii
brachialis
brachialis
deltoid
flexor carpi radialis
coracobrachialis
brachioradialis
biceps brachii
brachialis
brachioradialis
brachioradialis
coracobrachialis
Section 14
(50 cards)
IX
Glossopharyngeal: transmit and receive impulses from the pharynx, tonsils, tongue and carotid artery
Name the three accessory structures of the mouth
Tongue, tonsils, and uvula
What does lipase turn lipids into?
3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol
What does pepsin turn protein into?
Amino acids
Name the three pairs of tonsils
Palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal
Describe the purpose of saliva acting as a buffer
it neutralizes pH in foods (acidic/spicy)
What type of digestion happens in the mouth?
Chemical & mechanical digestion
What enzyme digests proteins?
Pepsin
VI
Abducens: moves the eyes and conditions of the muscles
occipitalis
rhomboid major
Parotid gland
Largest salivary gland; produces the most amylase; located inferior/past the ear
Tongue
moves food, making it into a bolus, and aides in swallowing; attached to frenulum
What are the four roles of saliva
Contain mucin, act as a buffer, contain antibacterial agents, and contain salivary amylase
Describe the purpose of saliva containing antibacterial agents
it kills bacteria on the food
digastric
What do tonsils do?
they have an immune response
What does amylase turn carbs into?
Glucose
XI
Accessory: transmit impulses to the soft palate, pharynx and larynx. Transmit impulses to the muscles of the neck and back.
IV
Trochlear: moves eyes
VII
Facial: transmit impulses associated with taste receptors. Motor fibers transmit impulses to muscles of facial expression, tear glands, and salivary glands
supraspinatus
When is saliva released?
When you smell, think of, taste food, or under parasympathetic control
frontalis
I
Olfactory: sense of smell
VIII
Vestibulocochlear: sense of balance, sense of hearing
Describe the purpose of saliva containing mucin
It is a digestive protein which protects and lubricates the bolus
X
Vagus: transmit impulses associated with speech and swallowing, transmit impulses to the heart, smooth muscles and glands.
III
Oculomotor: raise eyebrows, focus, eye movement
How does the digestive system absorb nutrients?
By breaking down the food using enzymes to turn the macromolecules into their usable monomers
V
Trigeminal: transmits from the scalp, forehead, upper lip, skin of the face. Impulses to muscles of mouth and mastication
Why is mechanical digestion effective?
It increases surface area for enzymes to work
levator scapulae
supinator
What are the three types of salivary glands?
Parotid, sublingual, and submanibular
II
Optic: sense of sight
Submandibular Gland
salivary gland that secretes mucous; located inferior/posterior to the tongue
What enzyme digests lipids?
Lipase
What enzyme digests carbs?
Amylase
What is an example of mechanical digestion in the mouth?
Chewing
What kind of foods do we digest?
Carbs, proteins, and lipids
extensor digitorum
Which pair of tonsils is most likely to be removed?
Palatine
Why do we need the digestive system?
To absorb nutrient
Describe the purpose of saliva containing salivary amylase
It is an enzyme that will begin to hydrolyze starches
extensor digitorum
Sublingual Gland
salivary gland that produces a viscous (thicker) substance; located under the tongue
What is an example of chemical digestion in the mouth?
Saliva
XII
Hypoglossal: transmit to muscles that move the tongue
pectoralis minor
Section 15
(50 cards)
What happens to the pH of the stomach when food leaves?
It returns to normal
What does HCL do?
Activates intrinsic factor; activates pepsinogen to pepsin
What happens to the bolus of food in the stomach?
It turns into chyme (nutrient milkshake)
What does the esophagus does?
Moves the bolus from mouth to the stomach
Intrinsic Factor
Glycoproteins important for the absorption of Vitamin B12
Pharynx (Throat)
intersection between the mouth, nasal cavity, and esophagus
What does gastrin do?
Stimulates gastric juice secretion
How much does the stomach empty at a time?
5-15 mL
How many ounces can the stomach hold?
64 ounces
What sphincter is on the inferior end of the stomach?
Pyloric sphincter
What's inside gastric pits?
Gastric glands
Where is the nasopharynx located?
Closest to the nasal cavity
What sphincter is on the superior end of the stomach?
Cardiac (esophageal) sphincter
What is the pH of the stomach?
1.5-2 (very acidic)
What's inside gastric glands?
3 types of secretory cells
What type of digestion takes place in the stomach?
Mechanical and Chemical digestion
What is intrinsic factor important for?
The absorption of Vitamin B12
When is swallowing voluntary versus involuntary?
The top tissue in the esophagus is voluntary (Made of striated fibers); further down it becomes involuntary (made of smooth fibers)
What is intrinsic factor inhibited by?
Alcohol
When does secretin and cck inhibit gastric juice production?
As food leaves the stomach and the pH returns to normal
What process allows you to swallow upside down or without gravity?
Peristalsis
Esophagus
25 centimeter muscular tube
How often does the stomach empty?
Every 2-6 hours
What is a protein enzymes active form?
Pepsin
What gets digested chemically in the stomach?
Proteins
How are all protein enzymes initially secreted as?
Their inactive form; pepsinogen
Where is the laryngopharynx located?
Closest to the larynx
Uvula
dangling extension of the soft palate
What stimulates gastric juice secretion?
Parasympathetic nervous system
What is gastric juice made of?
Mucous, pepsinogen, HCL, and intrinsic factor
Name the three types of secretory cells?
Mucous cells, parietal cells, and chief cells
How much 'storage' can the stomach hold?
2 liters
What hormones inhibit gastric juice production?
Secretin and CCK
Where is the oropharynx located?
Closest to the mouth
What gets absorbed directly into the bloodstream from the stomach?
Water, aspirin, and alcohol
What type of digestion takes place in the esophagus?
No digestion
What do chief cells contain?
Pepsinogen
What do mucous cells contain?
Mucous
Where is gastrin released?
The stomach
What are the three regions of the pharynx?
Oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx
What do parietal cells contain?
HCL & intrinsic factor
What type of digestion takes place in the pharynx?
No digestion
How long does peristalsis take?
Approximately 4 seconds
Ulcers
Holes in the stomach lining
Name the three functions of the stomach
Storage, mechanical digestion, and chemical digestion
What does the stomach have to help protect it from its pH levels?
An extra mucous lining
When is gastrin released?
When food enters the stomach and raises the pH above 1.5
Why is Vitamin B12 important?
Low levels of vitamin B12 have been linked to dementia
How does mechanical digestion take place in the stomach?
By mixing and churning
When is gastric juice secreted?
When we see, think of, or smell food
Section 16
(50 cards)
Villi and microvilli
lines the entire surface of the mucous membrane layer to increase surface area for nutrient absorption
How many liters that go through the small intestine come from saliva?
1.5 liters
What organ produces bile
Liver
How many liters that go through the small intestine come from what you eat and drink?
2 liters
Name the three structures that make up the small intestine
Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
Name the six functions of the lived
Production of bile salts, storage of glycogen, storage of amino acids, storage of vitamins, metabolism of alcohol, and detoxification
Name five intestinal enzymes
Peptidases, maltase, lactase, sucrase, and lipase
Where is cck released?
The duodenum; which then travels to the gallbladder, pancreas, and stomach
What stimulates the release of secretin?
When food leaves the stomach/acidic chyme enters the duodenum
What is cck
The hormone, cholecystokinin
How long is the duodenum?
10-15 inches
What digestive enzymes are used in the pancreas?
Lipase, amylase, trypsin, and chymotrypsin
What do alpha cells secrete?
Glucagon
How many liters that go through the small intestine are made of bile (from the liver)?
0.5 liters
What are the two functions of the pancreas?
Providing bicarbonate and providing digestive enzymes
How many liters that go through the small intestine is intestinal secretion?
1.5 liters
What happens in the small intestine?
completion of the digestion of fats, carbs, and proteins
What hormone gets the digestive enzymes in the pancreas?
Cck
How many liters go through the small intestine daily?
9 liters
Where does the digestion of fats start and end?
the duodenum
How long is the ileum?
4 meters
How many liters that go through the small intestine is already in the stomach?
2 liters
What can worsen (NOT cause) ulcers?
Stress and spicy foods
Where does the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream take place?
Jejunum and ileum
What do islets of langerhans contain?
Alpha cells and beta cells
Pancreas
Accessory organ (food doesn't touch it); not part of alimentary canal
Where are islets of langerhans located?
In the pancreas
What is the duodenum's job?
Digestion
What hormone gets bicarbonate in the pancreas?
Secretin
What intestinal enzyme breaks down peptides into A.A.?
Peptidases
When is cck released?
In the presence of fats and proteins
What is The jejunum's job?
Absorption
How long is the small intestine?
6-7 meters
Where is secretin released?
The duodenum; which then travels to the pancreas and stomach
Insulin
Stimulates the liver and muscles to store excessive glucose as glycogen to lower blood glucose
Bile
Liquid emulsifier; makes things H2O soluble
Where does all digestion end?
The duodenum
What do beta cells secrete?
Insulin
What is the job of secretin?
To inhibit gastric juice secretion in the stomach and stimulate bicarbonate release
What are the three jobs of cck?
To stimulate the gallbladder to release bile, to stimulate the pancreas to release digestive enzymes, and to inhibit gastric emptying and gastric juice secretion to suppress appetite
What type of digestion takes place in the small intestine?
Chemical digestion
What are the two causation of ulcers?
Bacteria called Helicobacter Pylori (H. Pylori) and overuse of anti-inflammatory medications (Advil)
What intestinal enzymes break down carbs into glucose?
Matase, lactase, and sucrase
What is the ileum's job?
Absorption
What enzymes in the pancreas digest proteins?
Trypsin and chymotrypsin
Glucagon
Stimulates the liver and muscles to break down stored glycogen to increase blood glucose
How many liters that go through the small intestine come from the pancreas?
1.5 liters
What intestinal enzyme breaks down lipids into 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol?
Lipase
How much of what goes through the small intestine is reabsorbed?
99%
How long is the jejunum?
2.5 meters
Section 17
(50 cards)
Where does secretin function?
Pancreas and stomach
What can inhibit intrinsic factor?
Alcohol
Gallstones
Calcified bile salts
What tissue(s) make up the mucous membrane?
Epithelial, connective, and muscle tissue
what do parietal cells secrete?
HCL and intrinsic factor
When is gastric juice secretion inhibited?
When food enters the duodenum and pH levels return to normal
Why is intrinsic factor important?
It helps absorb vitamin b12 (low levels are linked with dementia)
What is the function of the rectum?
To store feces
What are the four layers to the alimentary canal? (Deepest-Superficial)
Mucous Membrane, Submucosa, Muscular Layer, and Serous Layer
What do folds in the mucous membrane accomplish?
Increased surface area for nutrient absorption
What do mucous cells secrete?
mucous
What two organs does the ileocecal sphincter connect?
Small intestine and large intestine
What are the three jobs of cck?
Stimulate the gallbladder to release bile salts, stimulate the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes, and inhibit gastric juice secretion and gastric emptying
What does the storage of amino acids in the liver do?
Aids in protein synthesis
What is another name for the large intestine?
The colon
Protein synthesis
Building of proteins
Where is gastrin released from?
Gastric glands in gastric pits
What does the mucous membrane contain?
Glands that secretes enzymes(digestion) and mucous(protection)
What is the role of gastrin?
To stimulate the release of gastric juice
Where is cholecystokinin released from?
Duodenum
What makes up the submucosa?
Loose connective tissue, glands, blood vessels, nerves, and lymph nodes
Where are the gastric glands located?
gastric pits
What does the containment of e. Coli in the large intestine do?
Increase production of Vitamin K
What are the four layers to the alimentary canal? (Superficial-Deepest)
Serous Layer, muscular layer, submucosa, and mucous membrane
What does Vitamin K do?
Help blood clot
Where is bile stored and released from?
The gallbladder
Where are the three gastric glands and what does each secrete?
In gastric pits; mucous cells, chief cells, and parietal cells
Where is secretin released from?
Intestinal glands in the duodenum
Name the four components of gastric juice
Mucous, HCL, intrinsic factor, pepsinogen
When is gastrin released?
When food enters the stomach and pH levels rise above 1.5
What are the two sphincters in the anus?
internal anal sphincter and external anal sphincter
What do chief cells secrete?
Pepsinogen
List the order of organs in the large intestine
Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon
What three factors are responsible for the inhibition of gastric juice secretion?
Secretin, cck, and decrease in pH levels
Where is bicarbonate released from and what does it do?
Pancreas; it acts as a buffer to neutralize pH of chyme
Which anal sphincter is voluntary?
external anal sphincter
What do Circular fibers in the muscular layer do?
Contract to shorten diameter of lumen
How many gallbladders are removed each year?
750,000 gallbladders
Where does cck exert its actions?
Stomach, pancreas, and gallbladder
Which anal sphincter is involuntary?
Internal anal sphincter
What are the three jobs of HCL?
Activate intrinsic factor, activate pepsinogen into pepsin, and kill bacteria in the stomach
What are the two functions of the large intestine?
Absorb H2O, vitamins, and minerals & containing E. Coli
What is the function of the anus?
Where fecal matter exits
When is secretin released?
When acidic chyme enters the duodenum
What does secretin cause to occur?
Inhibits gastric juice secretion and gets bicarbonate
What vitamins are stored in the liver?
Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin E, Vitamin K, and Vitamin B12
What are the two layers to the muscle layer of the alimentary canal?
Circular fibers and longitude fibers
When is gastric juice secreted?
When you see, think of, or smell food & when food enters the stomach and pH levels rise above 1.5
When is cck released?
When fat and protein are present in chyme
What does the submucosa accomplish?
It provides nourishment for surrounding tissues and carries away absorbed nutrients
Section 18
(50 cards)
Cervical nerves
C1-C8
the spinal cord and nerves are the center for ________
reflexes
What do astrocytes do?
Support, protect and form scar tissue
What does the periosteum contain?
- blood vessels and nerves (nourishment) - dural space (blood)
what is neuroglia
Helpers of neurons
3 types of structural neurons
multipolar, bipolar, unipolar
Where do the nerves from the brachial plexus go
muscles and skin of the arm, forearm and hand
What nerve innervates the diaphragm?
phrenic nerve (C4)
coccygeal nerve pair
CO
lumbar nerves
L1-L5
Oligodendrocytes
CNS myelin sheath producers
Astrocytes
largest neuroglia that's found between neurons
What is the serous Layer made up of?
Epithelial tissue with underlying connective tissue
What nerves is the brachial plexus located at?
C5-T1
What do microglial cells do?
help form scar tissue
What are neuroglia capable of doing (that neurons cannot do)
Reproducing
Where do the nerves go to from the cervical plexus
Muscles and skin of neck
Sacral nerves
S1-S5
microglial cells
Phagocytes that remove foreign bacteria
What does the serous Layer accomplish?
Protection by secretion of serous fluids it moistens to reduce friction
what do the brain and spinal cord do
transmit impulses to and from the brain (elevator)
Dura mater
thick, white fibrous connective tissue layer that lines the skull and forms the periosteum
What does the subarachnoid space contain?
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
corticospinal descending tract
sends impulses to effectors (muscles/glands)
what nerves are the intercostal nerves located at
T2-T11
what are neurons incapable of
Regenerating or reproducing in the CNS
multi polar neuron
have many processes of the cell body
ependymal cells
form an epithelial-like tissue layer around the spinal cord, special brain parts, and brain ventricles
There are ____ neuroglia than neurons
more
9 layers of head from superficial to deep
skin, skull, dura mater, dural space (blood), arachnoid mater, sub arachnoid space (CSF), pia mater, cerebrum
Another name for neurons
Nerve cells
Spinothalamic ascending tract
receives and sends info relating to pain, touch, and temp up the spinal cord to the thalamus
Where are neuroglia found
In the CNS
Meninges
membrane layers that separate brain tissue from bone tissue
4 types of neuroglial cells in CNS
Ependymal cells, microglial cells, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
What are neurons
the functional unit of the nervous system
Thoracic nerves
T1-T12
What is another name for the serous layer of the alimentary canal?
Visceral peritoneum
Where do the intercostal nerves go
muscles and skin of intercostals and upper abs
Pia mater
thin membrane that tightly lines the gyri of the cerebrum
What is CSF used for? (3 things)
- promoting good blood circulation - immune system - protection of cerebral cortex
What do neuroglia cells do (6 things)
Support, protect, connect, nourish, insulate, form scar tissue
What do ependymal cells do?
produce CSF
What does the pia mater contain?
blood vessels and nerves (nourishment)
What do longitude fibers in the muscular layer do?
Contract to shorten the length of the tube
Arachnoid mater
thin, weblike membrane that supports the sub arachnoid space
What nerves is the Cervical plexus located at?
C1-C4
Plexus
A cluster if nerves that will branch out from this point
what do neurons do
Transmit impulses
2 types of sensory receptor cells
Neurons and neuroglia
Section 19
(50 cards)
transmission speed of bipolar neurons
slower than multi polar neurons
hair follicle
Where are multi polar neurons found
Found in CNS
two functions of visceral activities in the ANS
- controls homeostatic mechanisms (temp, HR, BP, BR) - preps the body for stress and physical exertion
Where do neurons in the parasympathetic NS arise from
The brain
Pathway of neurons in parasympathetic NS
Brain >> ganglia >> effectors
Ganglia
clusters of cell bodies in the PNS
What do multipolar neurons do?
Send motor info to PNS with rapid transmission
Unipolar neurons
one process off cell body
stratum lucidum
"clear layer" This epidermal strata is ONLY VISIBLE IN THE THICK SKIN OF PALMS AND SOLES and provides a layer of extra protection in high wear and tear areas of the body
stratum corneum
stratum basale
Divergence
a neurons axons go to two different neurons
Neuron pools
Neurons that are in close enough proximity that they can make synaptic connections
stratum granulosum
What kind of neurons are present in convergence
Sensory neurons (slow) to create an additive effect (faster)
sympathetic nervous system
- acts during stressful conditions of physical activity (arouses body) - "fight or flight"
parasympathetic nervous system
- Acts under normal circumstances (calms body) - "Rest and Digest"
Where are unipolar neurons found?
Found in PNS (skin)
Transmission of unipolar neurons
Slow
2 divisions of ANS
parasympathetic and sympathetic
examples of parasympathetic nervous system actions
- increase digestion - decrease HR and BR
Interneurons
mini processors at the brain stem that relay info in and out of CNS (between sensory and motor neurons)
what type of fiber are all pre-ganglionic fibers and what does it do
Cholinergic fibers: release acetylcholine (ACH)(controls muscle movement)
reticular layer of the dermis
hair root
2 characteristics of the ANS
- functions automatically (no conscious control) - controls visceral activities (smooth muscles, cardiac tissue, glands)
3 types of functional neurons
sensory, motor, interneurons
stratum spinosum
What kind of neurons are present in divergence
Motor neurons (quick) to amplify impulse and generate a greater force
sensory neurons (afferent)
Unipolar neurons that send impulse from the PNS (skin) to the CNS
Facilitation
A neuron is more excitable when a stimulus is present
hair shaft
subcutaneous layer
dermis
Where do the nerves of the lumbosacral plexus go
Muscles and skin of lower abs, legs, butt, external genitalia, lower leg, foot
sebaceous gland
papillary layer of the dermis
What type of fiber is the post-ganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic NS and what do they do?
Cholinergic fibers: release acetylcholine (ACH)(controls muscle movement)
Bipolar neurons
Two processes off cell body
Where do neurons arise from in the sympathetic NS
The spinal cord
Where are bipolar neurons found?
In ears, eyes and nose
another name for divergence
Recruitment
What type of fiber are the post-ganglionic fibers in the sympathetic NS and what do they do?
Adrenergic fibers: release epinephrine and norepinephrine (adrenaline)
epidermis
Convergence
Two neurons' axons connect to one
Brain parts associated with ANS
- Medulla oblonga: vasomotor, cardiac, and respiratory centers - limbic system (stressful emotions): amygdala and hippocampus
motor neurons (efferent)
Multipolar neurons that carry impulses from the CNS to the effectors (muscles/glands)
Pathway of neurons in sympathetic NS
Spinal cord >> ganglia >> effectors
What do unipolar neurons do?
Send sensory info to the CNS
Section 20
(50 cards)
Dermis
Inner layer of the skin; thicker than the epidermis; composed of connective tissue
Follic-
Small bag
Eumelanin
Type of melanin that is brownish-black; large factor of skin color
Melanin
A pigment that provides skin color; produced by specialized cells in the epidermis; absorbs ultraviolet radiation
arrector pili muscle
Does the epidermis have blood vessels
No
Melan-
Black
cut-
Skin
sudoriferous (sweat) gland
Subcutaneous layer
Layer beneath the skin (not a true layer); masses of areolar and adipose tissues that bind the skin to the underlying organs
Epi-
Upon
What's another word for subcutaneous
Hypodermis
Hair follicle
Tubelike depression in which a hair develops
Sudoriferous glands
exocrine glands that secrete sweat
Name the six things the skin is responsible for
Maintaining homeostasis through temperature regulation, protecting underlying tissues, preventing water loss, housing sensory receptors, synthesizing certain chemicals, and excreting waste
Name the five layers of the epidermis (deep-superficial)
Stratum basale, stratum spinousum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum
Eccrine glands
(Merocrine glands) most numerous and widespread sweat glands; produce sweat during heat or physical activity; produce sweat when person is emotionally stressed
Melanocytes
Produce a pigment called melanin that protects deeper cells from the sun's UV rays
What type of gland is a sebaceous gland?
Exocrine/holocrine gland
Four types of tissues that make up the skin
Adipose, stratified squamous, areolar, and stratified cuboidal
Melanin
Dark pigment produced by certain cells
Kerat-
Horn
Epidermis
Outer layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelium
Name the five layers of the epidermis (superficial-deep)
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinousum, and stratum basale
Organ
two or more types of tissues structurally connected and performing shared, specialized functions
Pheomelanin
Type of melanin that is reddish-yellow; found in certain locations (lips)
Seb-
Grease
hair follicle
Organs
Body structures composed of two or more different tissues
What does hypo mean
Under
Epidermis
Outer layer of the skin
Sebaceous glands
Groups of specialized epithelial cells which produce globules of fatty material that accumulate, swelling and bursting the cells
Keratin
protein produced as epidermal cells die and harden
Integumentary System
The skin and it's accessory structures (hair, nails, sensory receptors, and glands)
Dermis
Inner layer of the skin
Sweat glands
(Sudoriferous glands) exocrine glands that consists of a tiny tube that originates as ball-shaped in the deeper dermis or superficial subcutaneous layer
Subcutaneous
Beneath the skin
Apocrine glands
Sweat glands that become active at puberty; secrete by exocytosis usually when a person is emotionally upset, frightened, in pain, or sexually aroused
hair matrix
Sebaceous gland
Gland that secretes oily substances
Sudor-
Sweat
Integumentary system
The skin and it's accessory organs
Name four things the epidermis protects against
Water loss, mechanical injury, chemicals, and microorganisms
What tissue makes up the epidermis
stratified squamous epithelium
Stratum basale (function)
layer of reproducing cells, located at base of epidermis, and is well nourished by dermal blood vessels
Keratinization
The process by which keratinocytes(older epidermal cells) harden
hair matrix
the area of cells that makes new hair
How does melanocytes pass melanin to nearby cells?
Through cytocrine secretion
Derm-
Skin
Where are melanocytes located?
deep in the epidermis and underlying dermis
Section 21
(50 cards)
What is the body's response to excessive cold?
Constricting blood vessels, inactivating sweat glands, and shivering
Nails
Protective coverings over the ends of fingers and toes
What tissue is in the Subcutaneous layer?
Loose connective tissue
cervical
neck region
What is the body's normal response to injury?
Inflammation
A square inch of skin holds... (melanocytes)
60,000 melanocytes
Name the function of sebaceous glands
the sebum waterproofs and moisturizes the hair shafts
Ceruminous glands
Modified sweat glands that secrete wax in the ear canal
What is the constriction of dermal blood vessels called?
Vasoconstriction
What type of melanin does dark hair have?
Eumelanin
brachial
arm
acromial
Point of the shoulder
Name the two types of sweat glands
eccrine and apocrine
Granulations
appear during the healing of a large, open wound and are composed mainly of fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels
Name three things that affect skin color
Genetics, environment, and physiological factors
Lunula (function)
most actively growing region of the nail
antebrachial
forearm
Where can hair NOT be found?
Palms, soles, lips, nipples, and portions of external genitalia
What is the hair shaft composed of?
dead epidermal cells
buccal
cheek
Where are major blood vessels located in the skin?
Subcutaneous layer
What is the body's response to excessive heat?
Dilation of dermal blood vessels and sweating
antecubital
anterior surface of the elbow
axillary
armpit
What body part controls temperature regulation
Hypothalamus
Scar
Excess collagenous fiber that form an elevation above the normal epidermal surface
What type of wounds cause scars?
Deep wounds
Dermis (function)
Binds the epidermis to underlying tissues
crural
leg
A square inch of skin holds... (sweat glands)
650 sweat glands
cephalic
head
Arrector pili muscle (location)
attached to hair follicles
What are superficial cuts filled in by?
Epithelial cells
digital
fingers or toes
What is the dilation of dermal blood vessels called?
Vasodilation
A square inch of skin holds... (blood vessels)
20 blood vessels
What layer of skin contains the hair root?
Dermis layer
Lunula (appearance)
whitish, half-moon shape at the base of the nail
What occurs during inflammation?
Blood vessels dilate and become more permeable, causing tissues to become red and swollen
Arrector pili muscle (function)
muscles that cause goose bumps when cold or frightened
abdominal
anterior body trunk region inferior to the ribs
Mammary glands
modified sweat glands that secrete milk
Scab
Blood clot and dried tissue fluids
What type of tissue makes up the dermis?
Dense connective tissue
Name two functions of dermal blood vessels
Carrying nutrients to upper layers of skin & helping to regulate temperature
coxal
hip
What cells makes up nail beds?
Stratified squamous epithelium
A square inch of skin holds... (nerve endings)
1000 nerve endings
carpal
wrist
What type of melanin does blonde and red hair have?
Pheomelanin
Section 22
(50 cards)
gluteal
butt
Epigastric Region
Stomach
Hypogastric Region
inferior to the umbilical region
nasal
nose
Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
Sigmoid colon, Left ovary and fallopian tube (female), Left ureter and lower kidney pole, Left spermatic cord (male),
mammary
breast region
vertebral
area of the spinal column
Thoracic Cavity
Houses the lungs and heart
Left iliac region
sigmoid colon
popliteal
back of the knee
occipital
posterior aspect of the head or base of the skull
mental
chin
Left Lumbar
Transverse colon of large intestine
pelvic
pelvis region
Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
Stomach, Spleen, Left kidney and adrenal gland, Splenic flexure of colon, Body of pancreas
Umbilical Region
Small Intestine
Left Hypochondriac region
Diaphragm, Spleen
Celia
abdominal
dorsum
back
oral
mouth
Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Cecum, Appendix, Right ovary, right fallopian tube (female), Right ureter and lower kidney pole, Right spermatic cord (male)
Right Lumbar Region
Ascending colon ofLarge Intestine
frontal
forehead
Genital
reproductive organs
tarsal
ankle
sacral
region between the hips
pedal
foot
plantar
sole of the foot
Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
Pylorus, Duodenum, Liver, Right kidney & adrenal gland, Hepatic flexure of colon, Head of pancreas
orbital
bony eye socket
sternal
region of the breastbone
Right iliac region
cecum and appendix
Costal
ribs
sural
calf or posterior surface of the leg
lumbar
area of the back between the ribs and hips; the loin
umbilical
navel
Midline
Urinary bladder Urethra (female)
patellar
anterior knee region
Pectoral
chest
Abdomniopelvic Cavity
Houses the abdominal cavity and pelvic cavity
Cubital
Front of elbow
Ventral Cavity
Contains the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
inguinal
groin area
Abdominal Cavity
Contains stomach, intestines, spleen, and liver, and other organs
perineal
region between the anus and external genitalia
Right hypochondriac region
Liver, gullbladder
Diaphragm
The muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities
palmar
palm of hand
Cranial Cavity
Houses the brain
femoral
thigh
Section 23
(50 cards)
How many cells does the human body consist of
75 trillion
Mediastinum
The cavity located between the lungs
Name an example of diffusion
Oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules to be exchanged between the air and blood in the lungs
Facilitated Diffusion
Uses membrane proteins that function as carriers to move molecules (glucose) across the cell membrane
Effector
Bring about responses that alter conditions in the internal environment
Ventral
toward the front of a body
Hypotonic
A solution with lower osmotic pressure
Pelvic Cavity
Contains urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and rectum
Endothermic animals
Mammals & bird; are warm-blooded
Name all the factors maintain homeostasis
Temperature, blood pH, water levels, electrolyte concentration, oxygen, and blood pressure
Exocytosis
Process by which a cell releases large amounts of material
Set-point
tells what a particular value should be
Name the two mechanisms of movement
Passive and active
Active
Requiring ATP (active transport, endocytosis, and exocytosis)
Passive
Requiring no energy from the cell (diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, and filtration)
Endocytosis
Molecules that are too large to be transported by other means are conveyed inside a vehicle that forms from a section of the cell membrane
Positive feedback
Move bodily conditions away from normal
Pericardial Cavity
Contains the heart
Name an example of Hydrostatic Pressure
Blood pressure
Name examples of ions that need active transport
Sodium, potassium, and calcium
Isotonic
A solution with the same osmotic pressure as body fluids
Metabolism
body's efficiency level for obtaining energy
What is a person's natural pH
7.35-7.45
Name four types of passive movements
Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, and filtration
Negative feedback
Brings conditions back to normal
What molecules can pass through the lipid
Gases, steroid hormones
Dorsal
Head and spine
Diffusion
Random motion of molecules, movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to one of lesser concentration until equilibrium is reached
Anabolic reactions
reactions that build up chemicals
Catabolic reactions
reactions that break chemicals down
Name the five functions of membrane proteins
Receptors start signal transduction, channel proteins aid the passage, provide structure and support, cell identification, cellular adhesion molecules help determine one cell's interactions with others
What do cholesterol molecules do to the membrane
Strengthen the membrane and make it less permeable to water-soluble substances
What limits the rate of facilitated diffusion
The number of carrier molecules
Name the three things the cell membrane does
Regulate the movement of substances, participates in signal transduction, helps cells adhere to other cells
Vertebral Cavity
Houses the spinal cord
Describe the general characteristics of the cell membrane
Extremely thin, selectively permeable, and it has a complex surface with adaptions
Active transport
Uses atp to move molecules from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration
What is a person's natural temperature
98.6
Ectothermic animals
Use their environment to regulate internal values; require less energy to maintain homeostasis
Hypertonic
A solution with one higher osmotic pressure than body fluids
What types of proteins are found in the cell membrane
Transmembrane proteins and peripheral membrane proteins
Name the two types of active movements
Active transport and endocytosis/exocytosis
Dorsal Cavity
Contains the cranial cavity and vertebral cavity
Filtration
Because of hydrostatic pressure, Molecules being forced through membranes by the process of filtration
What are the two mechanisms to control homeostasis
Negative feedback and positive feedback
Pleural Cavity
Contains the lungs
Receptors
Take in info
Homeostasis
Maintaining stable internal environment
Osmosis
Special case of diffusion in which water moves from an area of greater water concentration to an area of lower water concentration
What four factors determine metabolism?
Genetics, regular exercise, diet, and sleep
Section 24
(37 cards)