Section 1

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The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:

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Last updated

6 years ago

Date created

Mar 1, 2020

Cards (150)

Section 1

(50 cards)

The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:

Front

achondroplasia

Back

Lesions shorter than 10 cm are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?

Front

Secondary

Back

The condition that causes a forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebra because of spondylolysis is known as:

Front

Spondylolisthesis

Back

This neoplasm involves a nidus.

Front

Osteoid osteoma

Back

What anatomic structure is responsible for the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes? A. Osteoblast B. Osteoclasts C. Red Bone Marrow D. Yellow Bone Marrow

Front

C. Red bone Marrow

Back

Periosteum encloses all of the bone and joint surfaces and provides a blood supply to underlying bone.

Front

False -Periosteum is a membrane that covers the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones. Endosteum lines the inner surface of all bones.

Back

A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:

Front

loss of lordosis

Back

Which of the following radiographic projections of the spine will decrease dose to the breasts and thyroid gland?

Front

PA

Back

Osteoarthritis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Decrease

Back

This type of arthritis may be classified as a degenerative disease.

Front

Acute arthritis and Rheumatoid arthritis (Both types)

Back

This neoplasm frequently involves the spine.

Front

Osteoblastoma

Back

Acromegaly requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

No change

Back

What types of cells are responsible for bone growth and thickening, ossification, and regeneration? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. trabeculae D. Osteophyte

Front

A. Osteoblasts

Back

The modality of choice for demonstrating vertebral fractures or other bony anomalies is:

Front

CT

Back

The most common primary site(s) for metastatic bone cancer is(are) the:

Front

breast and lung

Back

Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:

Front

Pars Interarticularis

Back

This type of arthritis may occur when an organism may spread from a bone infected with osteomyelitis.

Front

Acute arthritis

Back

Evidence of periosteal response is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?

Front

Primary

Back

Which of the following neoplastic diseases has the radiographic appearance of a "soap bubble"?

Front

Giant cell tumor (GCT)

Back

This type of arthritis may involve joint ankylosis.

Front

Acute arthritis and Rheumatoid arthritis (Both types)

Back

What anatomic structure is not part of the respiratory system?

Front

Esophagus

Back

The bony structure most commonly encountering metastases from primary neoplasms is: A. Femur B. Vertebral column C. Skull D. Pelvis

Front

B. Vertebral column

Back

Osteogenesis imperfecta tarda is present at birth.

Front

False

Back

Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

No change

Back

What pathologic condition is a fairly common form of osteosclerotic osteoporosis? A. Achondroplasia B. Osteopetrosis C. Osteomalacia D. Albers-Schönberg disease

Front

D. Albers-Schönberg disease

Back

Which of the following neoplasms has the radiographic appearance of a well-circumscribed, small radiolucent area containing a nidus?

Front

Osteoid osteoma

Back

Ankylosing spondylitis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

This type of arthritis may include clinical symptoms of pain and swelling of the joint.

Front

Acute arthritis and Rheumatoid arthritis (Both types)

Back

Evidence of soft tissue masses are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?

Front

Primary

Back

Up to 80% of all scolioses are:

Front

idiopathic

Back

The most common imaging modality to assess lower back pain is:

Front

radiography

Back

Being generally larger than 2 cm in dimension is a characteristic of which neoplasm?

Front

Osteoblastoma

Back

This type of arthritis typically begins in peripheral joints.

Front

Rheumatoid arthritis

Back

A solitary lesion is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?

Front

Primary

Back

Osteoid osteoma requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Decrease

Back

The type of arthritis that is triggered when an immunogenetically susceptible host is exposed to an arthritogenic antigen is:

Front

rheumatoid arthritis

Back

This type of arthritis may be caused by streptococci, staphylococci, or gonococci.

Front

Acute arthritis

Back

Osteosarcoma requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

What portion of a long bone is considered the primary site of ossification? A. Epiphysis B. Diaphysis C. Metaphysic D. Medullary canal

Front

B. Diaphysis

Back

Simple bone cyst requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Decrease

Back

The majority of metastases are _____ in nature and often detected by CT.

Front

osteolytic

Back

Osteogenesis imperfecta requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Decrease

Back

Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure? A. Femur B. Humerus C. Sternum D. Skull

Front

D. Skull

Back

Which imaging modality plays a key role in the primary diagnosis of neoplasms of the skeletal system?

Front

Computed tomography (CT)

Back

This type of arthritis includes the presence of autoantibody against gamma globulin.

Front

Rheumatoid arthritis

Back

This type of arthritis generally occurs between 30 and 40 years of age.

Front

Rheumatoid arthritis

Back

Osteochondroma requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

An osteoma would most commonly be found on the:

Front

skull

Back

Which disease is congenital?

Front

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Back

Section 2

(50 cards)

What is the most common bacterial pneumonia?

Front

Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia

Back

Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions because it captures information regarding metabolic activity?

Front

Nuclear medicine

Back

To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?

Front

Left lateral

Back

What pathologic condition occurs as a result of a disruption in the esophagus or trachea and air becoming trapped in the mediastinum?

Front

Mediastinal emphysema

Back

The most frequent type of lung infection is:

Front

pneumonia

Back

Which of the following is considered an out-pouching caused by a weakening in the muscular wall of the bowel?

Front

Diverticulum

Back

What pathology presents radiographically as a depressed or flattened diaphragm, abnormally radiolucent lungs, and increased retrosternal air spaces?

Front

Emphysema

Back

What chest position or projection will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?

Front

Left lateral

Back

What type of tube would be inserted into a patient with a hemothorax?

Front

Chest

Back

Which of the following patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?

Front

AP projection

Back

Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy?

Front

CT

Back

What anatomic structure presents radiographically as a "sail sign"?

Front

Thymus gland

Back

A solitary radiopaque lung nodule consistent with bronchogenic carcinomas is a:

Front

coin lesion

Back

Which of the following is not a primary type of pneumoconiosis?

Front

Histoplasmosis

Back

Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth?

Front

Maxillary & Ethmoid

Back

What diagnostic examination is most frequently performed in the radiology department?

Front

Chest radiography

Back

The most common pathologies associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are:

Front

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Back

What is the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity?

Front

Thoracocentesis

Back

Hyperinflation or the overdistention of alveoli with air is called:

Front

emphysema

Back

What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?

Front

Poor exposure technique

Back

What is deficient in the premature infant affected by hyaline membrane disease?

Front

Surfactant

Back

In severe cases, what type of pneumonia may mimic the radiographic appearance of TB?

Front

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Back

What term denotes the inability to move air into and out of the lungs, with increased blood carbon dioxide content?

Front

Hypercapnia

Back

What anatomic structure is not located in the mediastinum?

Front

Lung

Back

What type of pneumonia is frequently caused by influenza?

Front

Viral (interstitial) pneumonia

Back

The condition in which pus accumulates in the pleural space is termed:

Front

empyema

Back

What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?

Front

AP lordotic

Back

What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?

Front

Visceral pleura

Back

COPD requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

No change

Back

Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.

Front

Hereditary

Back

The predominant risk factor associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is:

Front

smoking

Back

The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.

Front

False

Back

What term is associated with TB when the bloodstream picks up the TB bacteria and carries it throughout the body?

Front

Miliary

Back

Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

What is the most common lethal genetic disease for white children?

Front

Cystic fibrosis

Back

A(n) _____ tube is inserted through nose or mouth into the trachea and used to manage the patient's airway.

Front

endotracheal tube (ET)

Back

What pathologic condition is a permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall?

Front

Bronchiectasis

Back

What type of fungal infection is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys?

Front

Histoplasmosis

Back

Which of the following is not a method of pulmonary metastases?

Front

Airborne droplets

Back

What is not a common cause of respiratory failure?

Front

Tachypnea

Back

What chest pathology radiographically demonstrates an air-bronchogram sign?

Front

Hyaline membrane disease

Back

Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

Diagnosis and management of heart failure, resulting from myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, represent the most common use of what type of catheter?

Front

Swan-Ganz catheter

Back

Esophageal atresia is a(n) _____ condition of the GI system.

Front

congenital

Back

Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Increase

Back

An inflammation of the pleura that is not visible on radiographs is:

Front

pleurisy

Back

Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

No change

Back

Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?

Front

Decrease

Back

What is the primary method of diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis?

Front

Intradermal Mantoux test

Back

Section 3

(50 cards)

It is normal to visualize gas in the small bowel of an adult.

Front

False

Back

Regional enteritis A. Double bubble appearance B. Skip areas C. Intraperitoneal air D. Apple core lesions E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Front

B. Skip areas

Back

What term is defined as difficulty swallowing? A. Aphasia B. Dyshasia C. Aphagia D. Dysphagia

Front

D. Dysphagia

Back

Which section of the small intestine appears delicate and feathery? A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Ilium

Front

B. Jejunum

Back

Which of the following is not an indication for the placement of a gastric tube? A. Aspiration of gastric contents B. Decompression and removal of gastric contents C. Nutritional support and feeding D. Maintain patency of esophogastric (EG) junction

Front

D. Maintain patency of esophagastric (EG) junction

Back

Regional enteritis requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

C. No change

Back

A colonic polyp with a wide base is referred to as a _____ polyp.

Front

sessile

Back

This condition in which a gallstone erodes from the gallbladder and creates a fistula to the small bowel is:

Front

gallstone ileus

Back

Mechanical obstruction A. Double bubble appearance B. Skip areas C. Intraperitoneal air D. Apple core lesions E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Front

E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Back

A hernia that cannot be pushed back into the abdominal wall is called a (an):

Front

incarcerated hernia

Back

What term best applies when the stomach slides into the thorax?

Front

Hiatal hernia

Back

Leiomyomas are benign tumors of the esophagus.

Front

True

Back

Celiac sprue is also referred to as:

Front

a malabsorption syndrome

Back

Which of the following is a synonym for Crohn's disease?

Front

Regional enteritis

Back

A telescoping of the bowel into itself is termed:

Front

intussusception

Back

Diverticulitis requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

C. No change

Back

Anencephaly requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

C. No change

Back

The condition in which the distal rectum and anus do not form is called: A: duodenal atresia B: Imperforate Anus C: Colonic Atresia D: None of the Above

Front

imperforate anus

Back

Which anatomic structure is not considered to be retroperitoneal? A. Cecum B. Ascending colon C. Descending colon D. Rectum

Front

D. Rectum

Back

Diverticulosis is typically:

Front

an asymptomatic disorder

Back

The noninvasive modality of choice for visualization of gallbladder diseases that does not use ionizing radiation is: A. Computed Tomography B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging C. Nuclear Medicine D. Sonography

Front

D. sonography

Back

What pathologic condition is caused by hepatocellular dysfunction? A: Pancreatitis B: Hepatitis C: Surgical jaundice D: Medical jaundice

Front

D: Medical jaundice

Back

A twisting of the bowel upon itself is termed:

Front

volvulus

Back

The congenital anomaly of the stomach where the pyloric canal is greatly narrowed due to an abnormality of the pyloric sphincter is:

Front

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

Back

Which enzyme begins to auto digest the pancreas with pancreatitis? A. CCK B. Pepsin C. Trypsin D. Glutin

Front

C. Trypsin

Back

A foreign body ingested by a patient while eating is best diagnosed with a:

Front

barium swallow

Back

Esophageal atresia requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

C. No change

Back

What is the most common indication for placement of an ileostomy? A. Ileus B. Neoplasm C. Ulcerative Colitis D. Diverticulitis

Front

C. Ulcerative colitis

Back

Which of the following may be caused by cirrhosis? A. impaired liver function B. portal hypertension C. ascites D. ALL THE ABOVE- A, B, and C

Front

D: ALL THE ABOVE- A, B, and C

Back

What is a chronic liver condition in which the liver parenchyma is destroyed, fibrous tissue is deposited, and regenerative nodules are formed? A. Hepatitis B. Fatty liver infiltrates C. Cirrhosis D. Ascites

Front

C. Cirrhosis

Back

Colon adenocarcinoma A. Double bubble appearance B. Skip areas C. Intraperitoneal air D. Apple core lesions E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Front

D. Apple core lesions

Back

A bowel obstruction requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

B. Decrease

Back

What anatomic structure is a double fold of peritoneum that attaches to the duodenum, stomach, and transverse colon?A. Mesentery B. Greater omentum C. Lesser omentum D. Visceral peritoneum

Front

B. Greater omentum

Back

A pulsion type of esophageal diverticulum found at the pharyngoesophageal junction is a(n) _____ diverticulum.

Front

Zenker's

Back

A classical sign of congenital pyloric stenosis is:

Front

projectile vomiting

Back

Peptic ulcers most frequently occur in the:

Front

duodenal bulb

Back

What radiographic appearance is associated with achalasia?

Front

Beaked appearance

Back

What diagnostic procedure can identify the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacterial infection in the stomach? A: Upper GI B: CT of the Abdomen C: Sonography of the gallbladder D: Nuclear medicine urea breath test.

Front

D: Nuclear medicine urea breath test

Back

Adenocarcinoma of the colon shows the classic appearance of a(n):

Front

apple core

Back

The radiographic "string sign" is associated with ulcerative colitis.

Front

False ...because "string sign" is associated with crohns disease.

Back

Which of the following statements are true regarding adenocarcinoma of the colon?

Front

A. Right colonic lesions are most often malignant B. Radiographically appears as an "apple-core" lesion. C. It is a glandular epithelial cancer. All of the above.

Back

What imaging procedure visualizes the biliary tree and main pancreatic duct with a fiberoptic endoscope passed through the duodenum? A. PTC B. ERCP C. OCG D. T-tube cholangiogram

Front

B: ERCP

Back

Appendicitis requires what type of technical factor change? A. Increase B. Decrease C. No Change

Front

C. No change

Back

What imaging modality uses fiberoptics to visualize the GI tract and other organs? A. Radiography B. Virtual CT colonoscopy C. Endoscopy D. Nuclear medicine

Front

C. Endoscopy

Back

Which hormone stimulates the release of bile into the duodenum? A. Cholecystokinin B. Estrogen C. Testosterone D. Cortisol

Front

A. Cholecystokinin

Back

Duodenal atresia A. Double bubble appearance B. Skip areas C. Intraperitoneal air D. Apple core lesions E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Front

A. Double bubble appearance

Back

What two biliary ducts unite to form the common bile duct? A. Right and left hepatic ducts B. Cystic and common hepatic ducts C. Common hepatic and right hepatic ducts D.Common hepatic and main pancreatic ducts

Front

B. Cystic and common hepatic ducts

Back

Duodenal perforation A. Double bubble appearance B. Skip areas C. Intraperitoneal air D. Apple core lesions E. Multiple air-fluid levels

Front

C. Intraperitoneal air

Back

When malrotation occurs, the colon is on the left side of the abdomen and the small bowel is on the right side of the abdomen.

Front

True

Back

What type of contrast agents are required and preferred for use when performing an upper GI in the case of a suspected perforation? A. Barium sulfate B. Carbon dioxide C. Water soluble D. Barium sulfide

Front

C. Water soluble

Back