The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:
Front
achondroplasia
Back
Lesions shorter than 10 cm are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
Front
Secondary
Back
The condition that causes a forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebra because of spondylolysis is known as:
Front
Spondylolisthesis
Back
This neoplasm involves a nidus.
Front
Osteoid osteoma
Back
What anatomic structure is responsible for the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes?
A. Osteoblast
B. Osteoclasts
C. Red Bone Marrow
D. Yellow Bone Marrow
Front
C. Red bone Marrow
Back
Periosteum encloses all of the bone and joint surfaces and provides a blood supply to underlying bone.
Front
False -Periosteum is a membrane that covers the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones. Endosteum lines the inner surface of all bones.
Back
A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:
Front
loss of lordosis
Back
Which of the following radiographic projections of the spine will decrease dose to the breasts and thyroid gland?
Front
PA
Back
Osteoarthritis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Decrease
Back
This type of arthritis may be classified as a degenerative disease.
Front
Acute arthritis and
Rheumatoid arthritis
(Both types)
Back
This neoplasm frequently involves the spine.
Front
Osteoblastoma
Back
Acromegaly requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
No change
Back
What types of cells are responsible for bone growth and thickening, ossification, and regeneration?
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. trabeculae
D. Osteophyte
Front
A. Osteoblasts
Back
The modality of choice for demonstrating vertebral fractures or other bony anomalies is:
Front
CT
Back
The most common primary site(s) for metastatic bone cancer is(are) the:
Front
breast and lung
Back
Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:
Front
Pars Interarticularis
Back
This type of arthritis may occur when an organism may spread from a bone infected with osteomyelitis.
Front
Acute arthritis
Back
Evidence of periosteal response is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
Front
Primary
Back
Which of the following neoplastic diseases has the radiographic appearance of a "soap bubble"?
Front
Giant cell tumor (GCT)
Back
This type of arthritis may involve joint ankylosis.
Front
Acute arthritis and
Rheumatoid arthritis
(Both types)
Back
What anatomic structure is not part of the respiratory system?
Front
Esophagus
Back
The bony structure most commonly encountering metastases from primary neoplasms is:
A. Femur
B. Vertebral column
C. Skull
D. Pelvis
Front
B. Vertebral column
Back
Osteogenesis imperfecta tarda is present at birth.
Front
False
Back
Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
No change
Back
What pathologic condition is a fairly common form of osteosclerotic osteoporosis?
A. Achondroplasia
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Albers-Schönberg disease
Front
D. Albers-Schönberg disease
Back
Which of the following neoplasms has the radiographic appearance of a well-circumscribed, small radiolucent area containing a nidus?
Front
Osteoid osteoma
Back
Ankylosing spondylitis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
This type of arthritis may include clinical symptoms of pain and swelling of the joint.
Front
Acute arthritis and
Rheumatoid arthritis
(Both types)
Back
Evidence of soft tissue masses are characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
Front
Primary
Back
Up to 80% of all scolioses are:
Front
idiopathic
Back
The most common imaging modality to assess lower back pain is:
Front
radiography
Back
Being generally larger than 2 cm in dimension is a characteristic of which neoplasm?
Front
Osteoblastoma
Back
This type of arthritis typically begins in peripheral joints.
Front
Rheumatoid arthritis
Back
A solitary lesion is a characteristic of what type of bone cancer?
Front
Primary
Back
Osteoid osteoma requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Decrease
Back
The type of arthritis that is triggered when an immunogenetically susceptible host is exposed to an arthritogenic antigen is:
Front
rheumatoid arthritis
Back
This type of arthritis may be caused by streptococci, staphylococci, or gonococci.
Front
Acute arthritis
Back
Osteosarcoma requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
What portion of a long bone is considered the primary site of ossification?
A. Epiphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Metaphysic
D. Medullary canal
Front
B. Diaphysis
Back
Simple bone cyst requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Decrease
Back
The majority of metastases are _____ in nature and often detected by CT.
Front
osteolytic
Back
Osteogenesis imperfecta requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Decrease
Back
Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Sternum
D. Skull
Front
D. Skull
Back
Which imaging modality plays a key role in the primary diagnosis of neoplasms of the skeletal system?
Front
Computed tomography (CT)
Back
This type of arthritis includes the presence of autoantibody against gamma globulin.
Front
Rheumatoid arthritis
Back
This type of arthritis generally occurs between 30 and 40 years of age.
Front
Rheumatoid arthritis
Back
Osteochondroma requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
An osteoma would most commonly be found on the:
Front
skull
Back
Which disease is congenital?
Front
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Back
Section 2
(50 cards)
What is the most common bacterial pneumonia?
Front
Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia
Back
Which imaging modality can distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary lesions because it captures information regarding metabolic activity?
Front
Nuclear medicine
Back
To evaluate a pleural effusion in the left lung, which decubitus position is required?
Front
Left lateral
Back
What pathologic condition occurs as a result of a disruption in the esophagus or trachea and air becoming trapped in the mediastinum?
Front
Mediastinal emphysema
Back
The most frequent type of lung infection is:
Front
pneumonia
Back
Which of the following is considered an out-pouching caused by a weakening in the muscular wall of the bowel?
Front
Diverticulum
Back
What pathology presents radiographically as a depressed or flattened diaphragm, abnormally radiolucent lungs, and increased retrosternal air spaces?
Front
Emphysema
Back
What chest position or projection will best demonstrate pectus excavatum?
Front
Left lateral
Back
What type of tube would be inserted into a patient with a hemothorax?
Front
Chest
Back
Which of the following patient positioning factors assists in increasing the size of the cardiac shadow?
Front
AP projection
Back
Which imaging modality is preferred when evaluating pulmonary adenopathy?
Front
CT
Back
What anatomic structure presents radiographically as a "sail sign"?
Front
Thymus gland
Back
A solitary radiopaque lung nodule consistent with bronchogenic carcinomas is a:
Front
coin lesion
Back
Which of the following is not a primary type of pneumoconiosis?
Front
Histoplasmosis
Back
Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth?
Front
Maxillary & Ethmoid
Back
What diagnostic examination is most frequently performed in the radiology department?
Front
Chest radiography
Back
The most common pathologies associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are:
Front
chronic bronchitis and emphysema
Back
What is the procedure performed under sonographic guidance that removes excess fluids from the pleural cavity?
Front
Thoracocentesis
Back
Hyperinflation or the overdistention of alveoli with air is called:
Front
emphysema
Back
What is a common complaint of radiologists when reading chest radiographs?
Front
Poor exposure technique
Back
What is deficient in the premature infant affected by hyaline membrane disease?
Front
Surfactant
Back
In severe cases, what type of pneumonia may mimic the radiographic appearance of TB?
Front
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Back
What term denotes the inability to move air into and out of the lungs, with increased blood carbon dioxide content?
Front
Hypercapnia
Back
What anatomic structure is not located in the mediastinum?
Front
Lung
Back
What type of pneumonia is frequently caused by influenza?
Front
Viral (interstitial) pneumonia
Back
The condition in which pus accumulates in the pleural space is termed:
Front
empyema
Back
What chest position may better visualize TB, which has a predilection for the apices of the lungs?
Front
AP lordotic
Back
What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?
Front
Visceral pleura
Back
COPD requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
No change
Back
Pneumonia requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
Front
Hereditary
Back
The predominant risk factor associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is:
Front
smoking
Back
The prognosis for patients diagnosed with bronchogenic carcinomas is excellent.
Front
False
Back
What term is associated with TB when the bloodstream picks up the TB bacteria and carries it throughout the body?
Front
Miliary
Back
Cystic fibrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
What is the most common lethal genetic disease for white children?
Front
Cystic fibrosis
Back
A(n) _____ tube is inserted through nose or mouth into the trachea and used to manage the patient's airway.
Front
endotracheal tube (ET)
Back
What pathologic condition is a permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall?
Front
Bronchiectasis
Back
What type of fungal infection is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys?
Front
Histoplasmosis
Back
Which of the following is not a method of pulmonary metastases?
Front
Airborne droplets
Back
What is not a common cause of respiratory failure?
Front
Tachypnea
Back
What chest pathology radiographically demonstrates an air-bronchogram sign?
Front
Hyaline membrane disease
Back
Pleural effusion requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
Diagnosis and management of heart failure, resulting from myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock, represent the most common use of what type of catheter?
Front
Swan-Ganz catheter
Back
Esophageal atresia is a(n) _____ condition of the GI system.
Front
congenital
Back
Sinusitis requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Increase
Back
An inflammation of the pleura that is not visible on radiographs is:
Front
pleurisy
Back
Pleurisy requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
No change
Back
Emphysema requires what type of technical factor change?
Front
Decrease
Back
What is the primary method of diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis?
Front
Intradermal Mantoux test
Back
Section 3
(50 cards)
It is normal to visualize gas in the small bowel of an adult.
Front
False
Back
Regional enteritis
A. Double bubble appearance
B. Skip areas
C. Intraperitoneal air
D. Apple core lesions
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Front
B. Skip areas
Back
What term is defined as difficulty swallowing?
A. Aphasia
B. Dyshasia
C. Aphagia
D. Dysphagia
Front
D. Dysphagia
Back
Which section of the small intestine appears delicate and feathery?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Ilium
Front
B. Jejunum
Back
Which of the following is not an indication for the placement of a gastric tube?
A. Aspiration of gastric contents
B. Decompression and removal of gastric contents
C. Nutritional support and feeding
D. Maintain patency of esophogastric (EG) junction
Front
D. Maintain patency of esophagastric (EG) junction
Back
Regional enteritis requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
C. No change
Back
A colonic polyp with a wide base is referred to as a _____ polyp.
Front
sessile
Back
This condition in which a gallstone erodes from the gallbladder and creates a fistula to the small bowel is:
Front
gallstone ileus
Back
Mechanical obstruction
A. Double bubble appearance
B. Skip areas
C. Intraperitoneal air
D. Apple core lesions
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Front
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Back
A hernia that cannot be pushed back into the abdominal wall is called a (an):
Front
incarcerated hernia
Back
What term best applies when the stomach slides into the thorax?
Front
Hiatal hernia
Back
Leiomyomas are benign tumors of the esophagus.
Front
True
Back
Celiac sprue is also referred to as:
Front
a malabsorption syndrome
Back
Which of the following is a synonym for Crohn's disease?
Front
Regional enteritis
Back
A telescoping of the bowel into itself is termed:
Front
intussusception
Back
Diverticulitis requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
C. No change
Back
Anencephaly requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
C. No change
Back
The condition in which the distal rectum and anus do not form is called:
A: duodenal atresia
B: Imperforate Anus
C: Colonic Atresia
D: None of the Above
Front
imperforate anus
Back
Which anatomic structure is not considered to be retroperitoneal?
A. Cecum
B. Ascending colon
C. Descending colon
D. Rectum
Front
D. Rectum
Back
Diverticulosis is typically:
Front
an asymptomatic disorder
Back
The noninvasive modality of choice for visualization of gallbladder diseases that does not use ionizing radiation is:
A. Computed Tomography
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
C. Nuclear Medicine
D. Sonography
Front
D. sonography
Back
What pathologic condition is caused by hepatocellular dysfunction?
A: Pancreatitis
B: Hepatitis
C: Surgical jaundice
D: Medical jaundice
Front
D: Medical jaundice
Back
A twisting of the bowel upon itself is termed:
Front
volvulus
Back
The congenital anomaly of the stomach where the pyloric canal is greatly narrowed due to an abnormality of the pyloric sphincter is:
Front
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Back
Which enzyme begins to auto digest the pancreas with pancreatitis?
A. CCK
B. Pepsin
C. Trypsin
D. Glutin
Front
C. Trypsin
Back
A foreign body ingested by a patient while eating is best diagnosed with a:
Front
barium swallow
Back
Esophageal atresia requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
C. No change
Back
What is the most common indication for placement of an ileostomy?
A. Ileus
B. Neoplasm
C. Ulcerative Colitis
D. Diverticulitis
Front
C. Ulcerative colitis
Back
Which of the following may be caused by cirrhosis?
A. impaired liver function
B. portal hypertension
C. ascites
D. ALL THE ABOVE- A, B, and C
Front
D: ALL THE ABOVE- A, B, and C
Back
What is a chronic liver condition in which the liver parenchyma is destroyed, fibrous tissue is deposited, and regenerative nodules are formed?
A. Hepatitis
B. Fatty liver infiltrates
C. Cirrhosis
D. Ascites
Front
C. Cirrhosis
Back
Colon adenocarcinoma
A. Double bubble appearance
B. Skip areas
C. Intraperitoneal air
D. Apple core lesions
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Front
D. Apple core lesions
Back
A bowel obstruction requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
B. Decrease
Back
What anatomic structure is a double fold of peritoneum that attaches to the duodenum, stomach, and transverse colon?A. Mesentery
B. Greater omentum
C. Lesser omentum
D. Visceral peritoneum
Front
B. Greater omentum
Back
A pulsion type of esophageal diverticulum found at the pharyngoesophageal junction is a(n) _____ diverticulum.
Front
Zenker's
Back
A classical sign of congenital pyloric stenosis is:
Front
projectile vomiting
Back
Peptic ulcers most frequently occur in the:
Front
duodenal bulb
Back
What radiographic appearance is associated with achalasia?
Front
Beaked appearance
Back
What diagnostic procedure can identify the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacterial infection in the stomach?
A: Upper GI
B: CT of the Abdomen
C: Sonography of the gallbladder
D: Nuclear medicine urea breath test.
Front
D: Nuclear medicine urea breath test
Back
Adenocarcinoma of the colon shows the classic appearance of a(n):
Front
apple core
Back
The radiographic "string sign" is associated with ulcerative colitis.
Front
False ...because "string sign" is associated with crohns disease.
Back
Which of the following statements are true regarding adenocarcinoma of the colon?
Front
A. Right colonic lesions are most often malignant
B. Radiographically appears as an "apple-core" lesion.
C. It is a glandular epithelial cancer.
All of the above.
Back
What imaging procedure visualizes the biliary tree and main pancreatic duct with a fiberoptic endoscope passed through the duodenum?
A. PTC
B. ERCP
C. OCG
D. T-tube cholangiogram
Front
B: ERCP
Back
Appendicitis requires what type of technical factor change?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No Change
Front
C. No change
Back
What imaging modality uses fiberoptics to visualize the GI tract and other organs?
A. Radiography
B. Virtual CT colonoscopy
C. Endoscopy
D. Nuclear medicine
Front
C. Endoscopy
Back
Which hormone stimulates the release of bile into the duodenum?
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Cortisol
Front
A. Cholecystokinin
Back
Duodenal atresia
A. Double bubble appearance
B. Skip areas
C. Intraperitoneal air
D. Apple core lesions
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Front
A. Double bubble appearance
Back
What two biliary ducts unite to form the common bile duct?
A. Right and left hepatic ducts
B. Cystic and common hepatic ducts
C. Common hepatic and right hepatic ducts
D.Common hepatic and main pancreatic ducts
Front
B. Cystic and common hepatic ducts
Back
Duodenal perforation
A. Double bubble appearance
B. Skip areas
C. Intraperitoneal air
D. Apple core lesions
E. Multiple air-fluid levels
Front
C. Intraperitoneal air
Back
When malrotation occurs, the colon is on the left side of the abdomen and the small bowel is on the right side of the abdomen.
Front
True
Back
What type of contrast agents are required and preferred for use when performing an upper GI in the case of a suspected perforation?
A. Barium sulfate
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water soluble
D. Barium sulfide