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What benign cardiac tumor is associated with tuberous sclerosis?

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Date created

Mar 1, 2020

Cards (600)

Section 1

(50 cards)

What benign cardiac tumor is associated with tuberous sclerosis?

Front

Rhabdomyoma

Back

What vascular pathology is associated with HTN in the upper extremities, hypotension in the lower extremities, and a radial-femoral delay?

Front

Postductal coarctation of the aorta (adult)

Back

What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia, epiphyseal enlargements, and costochondral widening, with the endochondral bones being affected?

Front

Rickets

Back

What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?

Front

Transient ischemic attack

Back

What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small, oval, light brown macules?

Front

Benign lentigo

Back

What type of peptic ulcer disease is characterized by the onset of burning epigastric pain immediately after eating?

Front

Gastric ulcer

Back

What vasculitis is characterized by systemic vasculitis in small to medium- size vessels (except the lung); affecting young males; 30% HBsAg-positive; P-ANCA and autoantibodies against myeloperoxidase?

Front

Polyarteritis nodosa

Back

What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young females and presents with the triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis affecting the knees and ankles?

Front

Reiter syndrome

Back

What bone cell has receptors for PTH?

Front

Osteoblasts (Remember, they modulate the function of osteoclasts.)

Back

What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia, can impair motor activity, and can cause lung problems?

Front

Marijuana

Back

If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli, is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?

Front

Ventilation of an unperfused lung segment is highly suspicious for pulmonary embolism.

Back

What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?

Front

Tay-Sachs disease

Back

What is the term for an abnormal amount of collagen type III that produces a large bulging scar, seen primarily in blacks?

Front

Keloid

Back

What rare disorder presents as a large, hard, irregular thyroid gland due to fibrous proliferation of connective tissue in the thyroid gland and extends to adjacent structures?

Front

Riedel thyroiditis

Back

What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?

Front

ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)

Back

What are the rules of 10 regarding pheochromocytoma?

Front

10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, and 10% familial, 10% in children, 10% outside the adrenal gland, and 10x more likely to be seen on the USMLE than in real life

Back

What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?

Front

Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease

Back

What AD disease involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles in association with esophageal carcinoma?

Front

Tylosis

Back

Blue sclera is seen in what hereditary bone disorder?

Front

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Back

What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, xanthomas, increased direct bilirubin levels, and antimitochondrial Abs?

Front

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Back

What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency, duration, intensity, and decreasing activity, frequently at rest?

Front

Unstable (crescendo) angina

Back

What is the term for hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis?

Front

Swan-neck deformities

Back

A 20-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease goes to the ER with a tender, painful, swollen, and erythematous knee (monoarticular). What organism is the likely culprit?

Front

Neisseria gonorrhea (history of STD in patient with monoarticular infectious arthritis: think gonococcus)

Back

What bilateral AR disorder seen in infancy as progressive renal failure has multiple small cysts at right angles to the cortical surface?

Front

Polycystic kidney disease of childhood

Back

What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly, ascites, and abdominal pain due to hepatic vein thrombosis?

Front

Budd-Chiari syndrome

Back

What is the term for normal cellular genes associated with growth and differentiation?

Front

Proto-oncogenes

Back

What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit, blood viscosity, basophils, and eosinophils; intense pruritus; and gastric ulcers due to histamine release from basophils, increased left atrial pressure, and plethora?

Front

Polycythemia vera (Remember, polycythemia vera is a risk factor for acute leukemias.)

Back

What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?

Front

Krukenberg tumor

Back

What triad consists of endothelial injury, changes in laminar flow, and hypercoagulation?

Front

Virchow triad, associated with the formation of a thrombus.

Back

In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia, defective degranulation, and delayed microbial killing due to a problem in chemotaxis and migration?

Front

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

Back

What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?

Front

Macrophages

Back

What enveloped RNA retrovirus infects CD4 T cells and uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

Front

HIV

Back

A 70-year-old man complains of urinary urgency, nocturia, hesitancy, postvoid dribbling, urinary retention, and a PSA result of 6.5 ng/mL. What is your diagnosis?

Front

BPH. Although an argument can be made for prostatic cancer (you should expect a much higher PSA result), these are buzzwords for BPH. Prostatic cancer is usually silent until late in the disease, when obstructive symptoms begin to occur.

Back

What is the term for white retinal spots surrounded by hemorrhage? In what condition are they seen?

Front

Roth spots, and they are seen in bacterial endocarditis.

Back

True or false? Klinefelter syndrome cannot be diagnosed until puberty.

Front

True

Back

What renal pathology involves uniform thickening of the glomerular capillary wall, granular appearance under the microscope, and effacement of foot processes?

Front

Membranous glomerulonephritis

Back

What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity, occurs in women more than men, and is most commonly seen in the third to the fifth decade?

Front

Scleroderma

Back

What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal proliferation of cell size, shape, and cellular organization?

Front

Dysplasia

Back

What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery vasospasm, symptom occurrence at rest, ST segment elevation (during episode), and no signs on ECG?

Front

Prinzmetal variant angina

Back

Rheumatic fever most commonly follows pharyngeal infections with what bacteria?

Front

Group A β-hemolytic streptococci

Back

What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery luminal narrowing, symptom occurrence during exertion, ST segment depression on ECG?

Front

Stable angina

Back

What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees, elbows, and scalp along with nail bed pitting and discoloration?

Front

Psoriasis

Back

Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the anterior cerebral artery?

Front

Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)

Back

In what syndrome does the patient have angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas; pheochromocytomas; retinal, cerebellar, medulla, or spinal cord hemangioblastomas; and epidermal cysts?

Front

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

Back

What enzyme is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease of childhood?

Front

NADPH oxidase

Back

What malignant bone tumor is associated with familial retinoblastoma?

Front

Osteosarcoma

Back

What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham test?

Front

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Back

What transports iron in the blood?

Front

Transferrin

Back

A Japanese man has weight loss, anorexia, early satiety, epigastric abdominal pain, and a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node. On endoscopy you find a large, irregular ulcer with elevated margins on the lesser curvature of the stomach. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Gastric carcinoma

Back

What form of sunlight is the most carcinogenic?

Front

Ultraviolet B (UVB) sunlight

Back

Section 2

(50 cards)

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-19.9 and CEA

Front

Pancreatic cancer

Back

What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?

Front

Graves disease

Back

What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?

Front

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)

Back

What disease arises from the adrenal medulla, displaces and crosses the midline, metastasizes early, is the most common solid tumor, and is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group?

Front

Neuroblastoma

Back

What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?

Front

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

Back

What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive, mental retardation, motor incoordination, and stunted growth?

Front

Iodine, resulting in congenital hypothyroidism

Back

A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough, shortness of breath, fatigue, and malaise; she has bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest radiography and elevated ACE levels. What do you diagnose?

Front

Sarcoidosis

Back

What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea, flushing, bronchospasms, wheezing; and is diagnosed by findings of elevated urinary 5-HIAA levels?

Front

Carcinoid tumor

Back

What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane, commonly seen in uremia?

Front

Burr cells (echinocytes)

Back

What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?

Front

Pott disease

Back

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In patients with sickle cell disease?

Front

Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)

Back

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • Overall?

Front

Staphylococcus aureus

Back

What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young men, involves the sacroiliac joints, has no subcutaneous nodules, and has a bamboo spine appearance on radiograph?

Front

Ankylosing spondylitis

Back

What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?

Front

Hydatidiform mole

Back

What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors, bone pain, deformities, and fractures due to excessive PTH?

Front

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (von Recklinghausen disease)

Back

What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?

Front

Toxoplasmosis

Back

What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count, prolonged PT and PTT, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrin split products (D-dimers)?

Front

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Back

What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?

Front

Borrelia burgdorferi

Back

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?

Front

Gastrinoma

Back

What thyroiditis presents as a tender, enlarged, firm thyroid gland, usually preceded by an upper respiratory viral illness?

Front

de Quervain thyroiditis

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CEA

Front

Cancer of the lung, stomach, colon, and breast

Back

What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?

Front

Duodenal ulcer

Back

True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is a marker for increased bone formation.

Front

True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with increased bone formation.

Back

True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion, leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.

Front

True. Delta-Cell tumors produce excess somatostatin, which inhibits CCK, gastrin (hypochlorhydria), and insulin secretion (diabetes).

Back

True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.

Front

True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.

Back

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Muscle phosphorylase

Front

McArdle's syndrome

Back

What lymphoma is characterized by CD19, CD20, CD5; CD23-negative; and chromosome 11;14 translocations?

Front

Mantle cell lymphoma

Back

What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?

Front

C5b-C9

Back

True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.

Front

True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.

Back

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Glucose-6-phosphatase

Front

von Gierke's disease

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • alpha-Fetoprotein

Front

Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors

Back

What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome?

Front

Preductal (infantile)

Back

What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?

Front

Serocystadenocarcinoma

Back

What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?

Front

1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and heme synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency 4. Lead poisoning

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Placental alkaline phosphatase

Front

Seminoma

Back

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In neonates?

Front

Streptococcus agalactiae

Back

What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)

Front

Pompe's disease

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Calcitonin

Front

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-125

Front

Ovarian cancer

Back

A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis, diplopia, weakness in her jaw muscles when chewing, and muscle weakness with repeated use. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Myasthenia gravis

Back

What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?

Front

Familial hypercholesterolemia

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Beta-hCG

Front

Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase

Front

Prostate cancer

Back

In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?

Front

Pyelonephritis

Back

What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur, pelvis, and tibia; and chromosome 11;22 translocation?

Front

Ewing's sarcoma

Back

What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in children?

Front

Teratoma

Back

What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In drug addicts?

Front

Pseudomonas

Back

What is characterized by an intense inflammatory reaction, an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?

Front

Healing by secondary intention

Back

What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function, resulting in thick, sclerotic bones that fracture easily?

Front

Osteopetrosis (Albers-Schönberg disease)

Back

What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?

Front

Brushfield spots

Back

Section 3

(50 cards)

What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?

Front

Albinism

Back

What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17

Front

Viral meningitis

Back

What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?

Front

Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)

Back

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid adenomas (or hyperplasia)

Front

MEN IIa (or Sipple syndrome)

Back

What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120

Front

Bacterial meningitis

Back

What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps, most commonly affects the colorectal area, and is associated with chromosome 5q21?

Front

Familial polyposis coli

Back

True or false? Removal of the ileum results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.

Front

True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is absorbed.

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Vinyl chloride

Front

Angiosarcoma of the liver

Back

What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels

Front

Brain abscess

Back

What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200, protein level 2.5, and a specific gravity below 1.020?

Front

Transudative; exudative has the opposite values and has an elevated cellular content.

Back

What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?

Front

Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

Back

What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?

Front

1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia

Back

What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to another?

Front

Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Naphthylamine

Front

Bladder cancer

Back

What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?

Front

Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma

Back

What disorder is associated with spider angiomas, palmar erythema, gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, encephalopathy, abnormalities in clotting factors, and portal HTN?

Front

Cirrhosis

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Alkylating agents

Front

Leukemias and lymphomas

Back

What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV-positive individual?

Front

Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)

Back

What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene, has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness, calf pseudohypertrophy, and elevated CPK levels?

Front

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Remember, Becker's is slower in progress, less severe, later in onset, and lacks cardiac involvement.)

Back

What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90% lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100

Front

TB meningitis

Back

What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?

Front

Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Asbestos

Front

Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Nitrosamines

Front

Gastric cancer

Back

What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?

Front

Heroin

Back

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia, sweating, hunger, confusion, and increased C-peptide levels?

Front

Insulinoma

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

Front

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Back

What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 0-10 WBCs (monocytes); glucose 45 to 85, protein 15 to 45

Front

Normal values

Back

What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor, a secondary cause of HTN, results in headache, diaphoresis, anxiety, tachycardia, and palpitations?

Front

Pheochromocytoma

Back

What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?

Front

gp120

Back

What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?

Front

Helicobacter pylori, which is also associated with an increased risk of gastric carcinoma

Back

What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill use?

Front

Hepatic adenomas

Back

What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

Front

Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs

Back

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, and mucocutaneous neuromas

Front

MEN III (or IIb)

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Aromatic amines and azo dyes

Front

Hepatocellular carcinoma

Back

What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis, spasticity, a decrease in HGPRT, and an increase in uricemia?

Front

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Back

What is the term for thickened, hyperpigmented skin in the axillae, groin, and skin folds associated with malignancies, obesity, and DM?

Front

Acanthosis nigricans

Back

What is the term for flattened nose, low-set ears, and recessed chin seen in patients with bilateral renal agenesis?

Front

Potter facies

Back

What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?

Front

Ristocetin

Back

What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?

Front

CMV retinitis and HSV-2

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Chromium and nickel

Front

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Back

What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?

Front

Liver

Back

Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary gland tumors and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Front

MEN I (or Wermer syndrome)

Back

How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

Front

>3.5 g/day of protein, along with generalized edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia

Back

What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or AR?

Front

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

Back

What is your diagnosis of a young, thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?

Front

Mitral valve prolapse

Back

Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?

Front

Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone, whereas Cushing's syndrome (adrenal adenoma) has decreased ACTH and no cortisol suppression with dexamethasone.

Back

What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?

Front

Primary intention

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Arsenic

Front

Squamous cell carcinoma (skin, lung) and angiosarcoma of the liver

Back

What is the term for RBC fragments?

Front

Schistocytes

Back

Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Benzenes

Front

Leukemias

Back

Section 4

(50 cards)

What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?

Front

Cytochrome c

Back

What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?

Front

EBV

Back

What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?

Front

Homogentisic oxidase

Back

What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?

Front

Pneumocystis carinii

Back

What disease that involves mental retardation, flat face, muscle hypotonia, and a double-bubble sign on radiograph poses an increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and ALL?

Front

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

Back

How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden cardiac death?

Front

More than 75% of the vessel

Back

What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?

Front

1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm

Back

What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick, weak bones and is associated with high-output cardiac failure?

Front

Paget disease (osteitis deformans)

Back

What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old age group, peaks when the person is 35 years of age, and is a bulky mass that spreads via the lymphatic system?

Front

Seminoma

Back

What are the five components of portal HTN?

Front

1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids

Back

What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?

Front

Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome, respectively

Back

What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in HTN, hypokalemia, and low rennin levels?

Front

Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

Back

Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3

Front

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

Back

What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?

Front

Meningioma

Back

What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?

Front

Hypertrophy

Back

What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?

Front

Craniopharyngioma

Back

What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus?

Front

PGE (along with low oxygen tension)

Back

Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM

Front

Goodpasture disease

Back

What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a deficiency in factor VIII?

Front

Hemophilia A

Back

Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 throughout the glomerulus

Front

Postinfectious GN

Back

Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?

Front

G-6-PD deficiency

Back

What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?

Front

GP IIb/IIIa, which is why GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors are used in the treatment of acute coronary syndromes

Back

What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?

Front

1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see, can't wee, can't kick with your knee

Back

Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy, OCP use, female gender, hemolytic anemia, cirrhosis, and obesity? (May be more than one answer.)

Front

Cirrhosis and hemolytic anemia, which are risk factors for pigmented gallstones.

Back

What law states that an enlarged, palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?

Front

Courvoisier's law

Back

What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?

Front

5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

Back

What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7, causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?

Front

Cystic fibrosis. (Parents are usually the first to find out because the baby tastes salty.)

Back

What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?

Front

Osteosarcoma

Back

What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?

Front

Gigantism

Back

Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a patient is HIV-positive?

Front

ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.

Back

What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell lymphomas?

Front

HHV-8

Back

What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin, platelets, RBCs, and WBCs?

Front

Thrombus

Back

Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6-PD deficiency?

Front

Heinz bodies

Back

True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.

Front

True

Back

What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?

Front

Proud flesh

Back

What is the term for osteophyte formation at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?

Front

Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.

Back

What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?

Front

Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

Back

What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN, RVH, and cyanosis due to right-to-left reversal of the shunt?

Front

Eisenmenger syndrome, which can also occur with any left-to-right shunt

Back

Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.

Front

DM, hypercholesterolemia, smoking, and HTN are major risk factors. Being male, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, homocysteine elevation, oral contraceptive pills, and genetics are minor risk factors for atherosclerosis.

Back

What is the term for air in the pleural space?

Front

Pneumothorax

Back

Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities, lax joints, pigeon chest, and posterior mitral leaflet prolapse and is prone to developing dissecting aortic aneurysm.

Front

Marfan syndrome

Back

What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?

Front

LC4, LD4, and LE 4

Back

What normochromic, normocytic AD anemia has splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?

Front

Hereditary spherocytosis

Back

What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty, masculinization, gynecomastia in adults, and crystalloids of Reinke?

Front

Leydig cell tumor

Back

What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens, positive direct Coombs test, and splenomegaly?

Front

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Back

What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?

Front

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)

Back

What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to anus, has noncaseating granulomas, is discontinuous (skip lesions), and has a cobblestone appearance, thickening of the bowel wall, linear fissures, and aphthous ulcers with normal mucosa between?

Front

Crohn disease

Back

What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow aspirations, splenomegaly, leukoerythroblastosis, teardrop RBCs, and hyperuricemia due to increased cell turnover?

Front

Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia

Back

What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic cord?

Front

Varicocele

Back

What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?

Front

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Back

Section 5

(50 cards)

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Aerospace industry, nuclear reactors

Front

Berylliosis

Back

True or false? Obesity, DM, HTN, multiparity, early menarche, and late menopause are all risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.

Front

False. They are all risk factors for endometrial carcinoma except multiparity. Nulliparity, estrogen-producing tumors, and estrogen replacement therapy are also risk factors for endometrial carcinoma.

Back

What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the United States?

Front

Smoking

Back

What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria?

Front

VIPoma

Back

What carcinoma produces hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable mass?

Front

This is the triad of renal cell carcinoma

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Rickettsial infection

Front

Hemorrhagic exudates

Back

What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?

Front

Deficiency in surfactant

Back

What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever, fatigue, generalized lymphadenopathy, CNS involvement, hepatosplenomegaly, bleeding, and platelet count below 100, 000?

Front

ALL

Back

What protein causes fibrinolysis?

Front

Plasmin

Back

What are the three components of amyloid?

Front

1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Parasitic infection

Front

Eosinophilic exudates

Back

What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?

Front

Porcelain gallbladder

Back

What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?

Front

Lisch nodules

Back

What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?

Front

Schistosoma haematobium

Back

Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from what cell in the bone marrow?

Front

Megaloblasts

Back

What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?

Front

Kayser-Fleischer rings

Back

What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur, humerus, and tibia?

Front

Caisson disease

Back

What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?

Front

Candida

Back

What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?

Front

Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization, ischemia, aging, and a host of other causes.

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Uremic pericarditis

Front

Fibrinous exudates

Back

Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?

Front

HBeAb

Back

What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting, fissuring, and oozing?

Front

Paget disease of the breast

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Pain and fever

Front

PGE2

Back

Name the six vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.

Front

Factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S.

Back

What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?

Front

Cystadenocarcinoma

Back

What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?

Front

Squamous cell carcinoma

Back

What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign, an increase in the number of bloody stools, RLQ pain, skip lesions, terminal ileum most commonly affected, occurrence in women more than men, and an increased thickness of the bowel?

Front

Crohn disease

Back

What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

Front

HHV 8

Back

What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?

Front

Paget disease of the breast

Back

What prion-associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus, involuntary movements, and death within 6 to 12 months?

Front

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Back

Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?

Front

The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.

Back

What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?

Front

1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Diphtheria infection

Front

Pseudomembranous exudates

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Meningococcal infection

Front

Purulent exudates

Back

What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention, bloating, flatulence, diarrhea, steatorrhea, and weight loss shortly after eating bread products?

Front

Celiac sprue (gluten-sensitive enteropathy)

Back

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Miners, metal grinders, and sandblasters

Front

Silicosis Note: Coal worker's pneumoconiosis is synonymous with black lung disease, an upper lobe occupational disorder

Back

Name the type of exudate, given the following examples. • Sunburn

Front

Serous exudates

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation, bronchospasm, and increased vascular permeability

Front

LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by platelets

Front

TXA2

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation

Front

PGD2, PGE2, and PGF 2

Back

What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Shipyards, brake linings, insulation, and old building construction

Front

Asbestosis

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Chemotactic for neutrophils

Front

LTB4

Back

Name at least three causes of metastatic calcification.

Front

Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P, (hyper) Parathyroid/ Paget disease A, Addison's disease M, Milk-alkali syndrome/metastatic cancer S, Sarcoidosis M, Multiple myeloma I, Immobilization/idiopathic D, Vitamin D intoxication T, Tumors

Back

Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium

Front

PGI2

Back

A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?

Front

Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list, but these are buzzwords to look for dissection.

Back

What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is most commonly seen in females?

Front

Nodular sclerosis

Back

What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?

Front

Myasthenia gravis

Back

What are the three left-to-right shunts?

Front

1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA

Back

Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19, CD20, CD5 (T-cell marker), CD23; and are CD10-negative?

Front

CLL (B-cell origin)

Back

True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.

Front

True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis of an asthmatic.

Back

Section 6

(50 cards)

What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?

Front

Schwannoma

Back

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by sensitized T-cells

Front

Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)

Back

What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?

Front

p-53

Back

What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almond-scented breath?

Front

Cyanide

Back

What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?

Front

Simon focus

Back

What disease has multiple schwannomas, café-au-lait spots on the skin, and Lisch nodules and is associated with chromosome 17q?

Front

Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules)

Back

What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?

Front

PKU

Back

True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in diagnosing CREST syndrome.

Front

True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse scleroderma.

Back

What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?

Front

TXA2

Back

What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?

Front

T lymphocyte

Back

What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with pseudorosettes?

Front

Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e., medulloblastomas and retinoblastomas)

Back

How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?

Front

At least six

Back

What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands, submaxillary gland, and submandibular gland with posterior uveal tract involvement?

Front

Mikulicz syndrome

Back

True or false? Sickle cell anemia, Caisson disease, chronic steroid use, and Gaucher disease are causes of avascular necrosis of bone.

Front

True. Fractures and trauma, however, are the most common causes.

Back

What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs, seen in lead poisoning?

Front

Basophilic stippling

Back

Can an acute MI be diagnosed only by looking at an ECG?

Front

No. Remember, tests do not diagnose, they confirm or refute your diagnosis. Also, diagnosis of MI requires two of three criteria: chest pain consistent and characteristic of MI, elevated cardiac enzymes consistent with MI, and ST segment elevation of 2 mm or more in at least two contiguous leads.

Back

What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, xerostomia, and an increased risk of high-grade B-cell lymphomas? What two Ab tests are used in making the diagnosis?

Front

Sjögren's syndrome; SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La)

Back

What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?

Front

ELISA test

Back

What is the triad of fat embolism?

Front

1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g., long bone fracture)

Back

Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe, what form of arthritis do you diagnose?

Front

Gout

Back

True or false? Being a white male increases your risk factor for testicular cancer.

Front

Oddly enough, it is true. Cryptorchidism, Klinefelter syndrome, testicular feminization, and family history of testicular cancer are all risk factors.

Back

What syndrome is due to Abs directed to presynaptic calcium channels and causes axial and girdle muscle weakness that improves with repeated use?

Front

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

Back

What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

Front

Chief cell adenoma (80%)

Back

What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?

Front

Volvulus

Back

What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?

Front

Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever

Back

What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?

Front

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Back

What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?

Front

Syphilitic

Back

True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no underlying pathology.

Front

False. The disease has no associated pathology; the phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying disease.

Back

What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?

Front

Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.

Back

What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?

Front

Target cell

Back

Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?

Front

Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung, esophagus, ureter, and kidney, just to name a few.

Back

In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt, along with Heinz body formation?

Front

G-6-PD deficiency

Back

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent or ADCC.

Front

Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)

Back

What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?

Front

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Back

What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli, tubules, and stroma; and metastasizes late to the lungs?

Front

Wilms tumor

Back

What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia, loss of deep tendon reflexes, impaired vibratory sensation, hand clumsiness, and loss of position sense?

Front

Friedreich ataxia

Back

Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.

Front

N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8

Back

What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?

Front

Metastatic calcification

Back

What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?

Front

Intraductal papilloma

Back

What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity, hirsutism, infertility, amenorrhea, elevated LH and testosterone levels, and low FSH levels?

Front

Polycystic ovary disease (Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

Back

What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+, involves keratin pearls, occurs in men more than women, is associated with smoking, occurs in the major bronchi, and is seen in the central areas of the lung?

Front

Squamous cell carcinoma

Back

Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

Front

Ulcerative colitis

Back

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.

Front

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)

Back

What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?

Front

Goodpasture syndrome

Back

What are the three platelet aggregating factors?

Front

1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2

Back

Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?

Front

Transtentorial (uncal)

Back

Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or localized.

Front

Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)

Back

In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational exposure to asbestos?

Front

Malignant mesothelioma

Back

What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a deficiency in factor IX?

Front

Hemophilia B

Back

What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?

Front

Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency

Back

Section 7

(50 cards)

What type of erythema do you see in • Rheumatic fever?

Front

Erythema marginatum

Back

What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?

Front

Adult T-cell leukemia

Back

What type of erythema do you see in • Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Front

Erythema multiforme

Back

True or false? Blood clots lack platelets.

Front

True. A thrombus has platelets, but clots do not.

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Sydenham chorea

Front

Major

Back

What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes, muscle weakness, and ascending paralysis preceded by a viral illness?

Front

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Back

What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?

Front

Oligodendroglioma

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Erythema marginatum

Front

Major

Back

What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?

Front

Histiocytosis X

Back

Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

Front

PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT, which means warfarin, extrinsic, PT; heparin, intrinsic, PTT)

Back

Name the four right-to-left congenital cardiac shunts.

Front

Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T

Back

What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?

Front

Schatzki ring

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Arthralgias

Front

Minor

Back

What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?

Front

Amanita phalloides

Back

What are the three main components of amyloid?

Front

Fibrillary protein, amyloid protein, and glycosaminoglycans (heparin sulfate mainly)

Back

Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of collagen?

Front

Type IV collagen

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis

Front

Major

Back

What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?

Front

Clonorchis sinensis

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Migratory polyarthritis

Front

Major

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Subcutaneous nodules

Front

Major

Back

What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?

Front

Bcl-2

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Fever

Front

Minor

Back

What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?

Front

A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle, whereas a Ghon complex is a focus with hilar lymph node involvement.

Back

What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?

Front

Scrotal cancer, due to the high exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons

Back

What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP use and pregnancy?

Front

Melasma

Back

Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Elevated acute phase reactants (e.g., ESR)

Front

Minor

Back

Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?

Front

Hepatitis D

Back

What type of erythema do you see in • Ulcerative colitis?

Front

Erythema nodosum

Back

What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly encounter?

Front

Libman-Sacks endocarditis

Back

What is the classic triad of TB?

Front

Fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis

Back

What is the term for telescoping of the proximal bowel into the distal segment presenting as abdominal pain, currant jelly stools, and intestinal obstruction?

Front

Intussusception

Back

What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100, 00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue, malaise, weight loss, and anorexia?

Front

CML

Back

With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?

Front

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

Back

What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?

Front

<2

Back

What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?

Front

Melanosis coli

Back

What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?

Front

Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)

Back

What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with neuromuscular irritability indicate?

Front

Hypoparathyroidism

Back

What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner syndrome?

Front

Osteoma

Back

What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?

Front

Lymphoblastic lymphoma

Back

True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.

Front

False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries, as well as meningiomas.

Back

With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?

Front

GH-producing adenoma

Back

What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of the skin?

Front

Bulla

Back

What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?

Front

Mercury

Back

What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?

Front

Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)

Back

What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?

Front

1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa

Back

What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures, headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity, IgM M-protein spike on serum electrophoresis, and Russell bodies?

Front

Waldenström's macroglobulinemia

Back

What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?

Front

EBV

Back

What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting bacteria?

Front

Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)

Back

What disorder is associated with loss of polarity, anaplasia, pleomorphism, discohesiveness, increase in the nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, hyperchromasia, and increase in the rate of mitosis?

Front

Malignancy

Back

In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys, rockerbottom feet, low-set ears, micrognathia, and mental retardation?

Front

Edward syndrome (trisomy 18)

Back

Section 8

(50 cards)

What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic anemia?

Front

Vitamin B6

Back

What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?

Front

Bronchiectasis

Back

What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70 antibodies?

Front

Scleroderma

Back

True or false? All of the following are risk factors for cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies, early age of intercourse, multiple sexual partners, OCP use, smoking, HIV, and STDs.

Front

True. Don't forget this list; you will be asked.

Back

What disease with familial mental retardation produces large, everted ears and macro-orchidism?

Front

Fragile X syndrome

Back

What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?

Front

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Back

Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?

Front

Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium, phosphorus, and alkaline phosphatase.

Back

How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?

Front

At least 5 lobes

Back

What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?

Front

Caplan syndrome

Back

What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?

Front

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Back

What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?

Front

Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Pancreas

Front

Stable

Back

IgE-mediated mast cell release, C3a and C5a, and IL-1 all trigger the release of what vasoactive amine?

Front

Histamine

Back

What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sun-exposed sites has a low level of metastasis?

Front

Squamous cell carcinoma

Back

What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?

Front

Sheehan syndrome

Back

What is an elevated, fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?

Front

Vesicle (e.g., poison ivy)

Back

What is the term for precipitation of calcium phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?

Front

Dystrophic calcification

Back

Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?

Front

Massive influx of calcium

Back

What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?

Front

VSD, RVH, overriding aorta, and pulmonary stenosis

Back

What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?

Front

Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)

Back

What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined well-circumscribed borders?

Front

Benign nevus (mole)

Back

After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean, an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do you immediately diagnose?

Front

Pulmonary embolism due to a DVT; this is not absolute but a classic description.

Back

What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal, endodermal, and mesodermal elements (i.e., skin, hair, teeth and neural tissue)?

Front

Teratoma (dermoid cyst)

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Skeletal muscle

Front

Permanent

Back

What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?

Front

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Back

What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion, crepitus, effusions, and swelling and commonly affects the knees, hips, and spine?

Front

Osteoarthritis

Back

What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?

Front

Meckel diverticulum

Back

What are the three causes of transudate?

Front

CHF, cirrhosis, and nephrosis

Back

What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?

Front

Howell-Jolly bodies

Back

What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?

Front

Mees lines

Back

What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?

Front

Hypersegmented neutrophils

Back

What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with increased intracranial pressure?

Front

Cushing's ulcers

Back

A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness, a sore, beefy red tongue, loss of vibration and position sense, arm and leg dystaxia, elevated levels of methylmalonic acid in the urine, and anemia with an MCV above 105 fL. What is your diagnosis, and how will you monitor his response to treatment?

Front

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is treated with IM vitamin B12 injections. If treatment is working, you will see an increased reticulocyte count on the peripheral smear in about 5 days.

Back

What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?

Front

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

Back

What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy, chorea, dementia, and personality changes?

Front

Huntington disease

Back

What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group, is more prevalent in women than men, involves diarrhea with or without bloody stools, starts in the rectum and ascends without skipping areas, includes pseudopolyps, and has a thickness of the bowel that does not change?

Front

Ulcerative colitis

Back

What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?

Front

Klatskin tumor

Back

What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype, testes present, and ambiguous or female external genitalia?

Front

Male pseudohermaphrodite (dude looks like a lady!)

Back

What cell type involves humoral immunity?

Front

B lymphocyte

Back

What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?

Front

Salpingitis

Back

What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation, somnolence, convulsions, and encephalopathy?

Front

Lead

Back

What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum, brainstem, spinal cord, and retina?

Front

Hemangioblastoma

Back

What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?

Front

Scrofula

Back

What is the triad of Felty syndrome?

Front

Neutropenia, splenomegaly, and rheumatoid arthritis

Back

What type of crystals are associated with gout?

Front

Monosodium urate crystals

Back

What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+, cardiac arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney stones, and metastatic calcifications?

Front

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Back

What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?

Front

Marfan syndrome

Back

What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?

Front

Chemotaxis

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Epidermis

Front

Labile

Back

If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes, reticulocytes, and thrombocytopenia, is it more commonly seen in patients with ITP or TTP?

Front

TTP; thrombocytopenia with megathrombocytes is more characteristic of ITP.

Back

Section 9

(50 cards)

What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?

Front

Auspitz sign

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Osteoblasts

Front

Stable (Labile cells proliferate throughout life; stable cells have a low level of proliferation; and permanent cells as the name states, do not proliferate.)

Back

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Epidural hemorrhage

Front

Middle meningeal artery

Back

In which form of emphysema, panacinar or centriacinar, is the effect worse in the apical segments of the upper lobes?

Front

Centriacinar worse in upper lobes; panacinar worse in base of lower lobes

Back

What syndrome results if the enzyme ɑ-1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase deficiency?

Front

Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome, respectively

Back

What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given aspirin during a viral illness?

Front

Reye syndrome

Back

What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?

Front

Cholesterolosis

Back

What is the term for programmed cell death?

Front

Apoptosis (Remember, there is a lack of inflammatory response.)

Back

What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis, MI, cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac arrhythmias?

Front

Cocaine

Back

What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?

Front

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Back

What type of GN, associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis, has mesangial deposits of IgA, C3, properdin, IgG, and IgM?

Front

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

Back

True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels are associated with poststreptococcal GN.

Front

False. ASO titers are elevated, but serum complement levels are decreased.

Back

True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.

Front

True

Back

What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?

Front

Arsenic, thorotrast, and vinyl chloride

Back

What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?

Front

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

Back

What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?

Front

Melanin

Back

Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?

Front

Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.

Back

What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von Willebrand factor?

Front

GP Ib

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Hematopoietic cells

Front

Labile

Back

What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus, dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles, and signs of extrapyramidal lesions?

Front

Huntington disease

Back

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subdural hemorrhage

Front

Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus

Back

What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?

Front

X-linked recessive

Back

What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell anemia?

Front

Valine

Back

What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase, dihydrotestosterone, PSA, and bone pain?

Front

Prostatic carcinoma

Back

What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?

Front

Placental alkaline phosphatase

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Kidney

Front

Stable

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Fibroblasts

Front

Stable

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Smooth muscle

Front

Stable

Back

What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female having visual field deficits, dizziness, decreased blood pressure, and weakened pulses in the upper extremities?

Front

Takayasu arteritis (medium-size to large vessels)

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • CNS neurons

Front

Permanent

Back

What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?

Front

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Mucosal epithelium

Front

Labile

Back

What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling?

Front

Lead poisoning

Back

Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte function- associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?

Front

Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1

Back

What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?

Front

Eosinophil

Back

What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?

Front

At least 30% blast in the bone marrow

Back

What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?

Front

Hgb F

Back

What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous, with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps, and is associated with HLA-B27?

Front

Ulcerative colitis

Back

What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?

Front

CHF

Back

Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Front

Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Liver

Front

Stable

Back

What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?

Front

Pseudogout

Back

What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?

Front

Astrocytoma

Back

A 20-year-old college student has fever, grey-white membranes over the tonsils, posterior auricular lymphadenitis, and hepatosplenomegaly. What is your diagnosis? What test do you order to confirm your diagnosis?

Front

EBV infections resulting in infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the Monospot test. (Remember, it may be negative in the first week of the illness, so retest if you have a high index of suspicion.)

Back

True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have no Barr bodies.

Front

True. Remember, the second X chromosome is inactivated, and so is the Barr body. Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome.

Back

Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g., GI, skin, respiratory tract). What enzyme deficiency causes increased capillary permeability due to a release of vasoactive peptides?

Front

C1 esterase inhibitor (C1INH)

Back

Name the type of regeneration (i.e., labile, stable, or permanent) based on the following examples. • Cardiac muscle

Front

Permanent

Back

What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?

Front

Myeloperoxidase

Back

Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?

Front

Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, but Dubin-Johnson syndrome is differentiated from Rotor by the black pigmentation of the liver.

Back

What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ɑ-synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?

Front

Lewy bodies

Back

Section 10

(50 cards)

What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?

Front

Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2

Back

What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis, tubules, and interstitium causing costovertebral angle tenderness, fever, chills, dysuria, frequency, and urgency?

Front

Pyelonephritis

Back

How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

Front

Two major or one major and two minor

Back

What is a palpable, elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?

Front

Papule

Back

What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?

Front

Klinefelter syndrome

Back

What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?

Front

1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia

Back

What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?

Front

Beryllium

Back

What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?

Front

Job syndrome

Back

What are the four signs of acute inflammation?

Front

Rubor (red), dolor (pain), calor (heat), tumor (swelling); also sometimes there is loss of function

Back

What do the risk factors late menopause, early menarche, obesity, nulliparity, excessive estrogen, genetic factor p53, and brc-abl characterize?

Front

Breast cancer

Back

What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium difficile, ischemia, Staphylococcus, Shigella, or Candida infection?

Front

Pseudomembranous colitis

Back

What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?

Front

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Back

Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNA—are associated with the following periods? • Acute infection

Front

HBcAb IgM, HBV-DNA, HBeAg, HBsAg

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • The most common form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the cytoplasm

Front

Coagulative necrosis

Back

What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?

Front

Type 2

Back

Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?

Front

Nodular melanoma

Back

An 80-year-old woman presents to you with right-sided temporal headache, facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side, and an elevated ESR. Your diagnosis?

Front

Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)

Back

What is the pentad of TTP?

Front

Neurologic symptoms Renal failure Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern, my senior resident asked me this question more times than I would like to remember.)

Back

What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?

Front

Parvovirus B 19

Back

Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNA—are associated with the following periods? • Immunization

Front

HBsAb IgG

Back

What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?

Front

Boutonnière deformities

Back

Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?

Front

Panacinar

Back

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron, TIBC, and percent saturation; increased ferritin

Front

Anemia of chronic disease

Back

What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?

Front

Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)

Back

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Normal iron, TIBC, percent saturation, and ferritin

Front

Thalassemia minor

Back

True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of a lung.

Front

False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.

Back

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Increased iron, decreased TIBC, increased percent saturation, increased ferritin

Front

Sideroblastic anemia

Back

What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?

Front

Onion skinning

Back

What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?

Front

Type III

Back

Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection from what type of organisms?

Front

Encapsulated bacteria

Back

What pathology is associated with podagra, tophi in the ear, and PMNs with monosodium urate crystals?

Front

Gout

Back

The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?

Front

Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)

Back

What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure, psammoma bodies, and Orphan Annie eye nuclei?

Front

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

Back

Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNA—are associated with the following periods? • Chronic infection

Front

HBcAb IgG, HBV-DNA, HBeAg, HBsAg

Back

What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?

Front

45XO

Back

Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with life?

Front

Type II

Back

What disease is X-linked recessive, is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections, involves a decrease in serum IgM and in the T cell-dependent paracortical areas of the lymph nodes, and means that the patient is likely to develop malignant lymphoma?

Front

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Back

A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer, which is commonly unilateral, single nodule, no variation with pregnancy.

Back

What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?

Front

Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)

Back

With what is cherry red intoxication associated?

Front

Acute CO poisoning

Back

What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?

Front

Endometriosis

Back

What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?

Front

Hemosiderin

Back

How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?

Front

It causes a buildup of dATP, which inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and leads to a decrease in deoxynucleoside triphosphate, a precursor of DNA, resulting in overall bone marrow suppression.

Back

What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?

Front

Gaucher disease

Back

Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNA—are associated with the following periods? • Window period

Front

HBcAb IgM

Back

True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.

Front

True

Back

Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG, HBcAb IgM, HBeAg, HBsAb IgG, HBsAg, HBV-DNA—are associated with the following periods? • Prior infection

Front

HBcAb IgG and HBsAb IgG

Back

Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron, percent saturation, and ferritin; increased TIBC

Front

Iron deficiency anemia

Back

Name three opsonins.

Front

Fc portion of IgG, C3b, and mannose-binding proteins

Back

Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?

Front

HBeAg

Back

Section 11

(50 cards)

What is the term for inflamed, thickened skin on the breast with dimpling associated with cancer?

Front

Peau d'orange

Back

What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?

Front

Pseudogout

Back

What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?

Front

Leydig cell tumor

Back

What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without immune complex deposition?

Front

Minimal change disease

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • Histologically resembles fibrin

Front

Fibrinoid necrosis

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive necrosis?

Front

Liquefaction necrosis

Back

What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs

Front

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

Back

What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?

Front

Prostatic carcinoma

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance

Front

Fat necrosis

Back

What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?

Front

Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway

Back

What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

Front

Berry aneurysm

Back

What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?

Front

2% of population, 2 cm long, 2 feet from ileocecal valve, 2 years old, and 2% of carcinoid tumors

Back

What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?

Front

Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)

Back

Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived free radicals.

Front

Superoxide dismutase, glutathione peroxidase, catalase

Back

What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average volume of a RBC

Front

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

Back

What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?

Front

Hypertrophic scar

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • Soft, friable, cottage-cheese appearing; characteristically seen in TB

Front

Caseous necrosis

Back

What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive, symmetric arthritis affecting the hands, wrists, knees, and ankles that improves with increased activity?

Front

Rheumatoid arthritis

Back

What is the name for the following RBC indices? • The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume

Front

Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)

Back

What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections, severe thrombocytopenia, and eczema?

Front

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Back

What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac myopathies, calf pseudohypertrophy, lordosis, protuberant belly, an increase then a decrease in CPK, and death commonly in the second decade of life?

Front

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Back

Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis

Front

Gangrenous necrosis

Back

What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?

Front

Turcot syndrome

Back

Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painless hyperemic lesions on the palms and soles

Front

Janeway lesions

Back

Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?

Front

Embolic

Back

Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes

Front

Osler nodes

Back

What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?

Front

HTLV-1

Back

Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Retinal emboli

Front

Roth spots

Back

Two weeks after her son has a throat infection, a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever, malaise, HTN, dark urine, and periorbital edema. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Poststreptococcal GN

Back

What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC

Front

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

Back

True or false? Excess lead deposits in the oral cavity.

Front

True. It deposits at the gingivodental line, known as the lead line.

Back

What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in micronodular cirrhosis, CHF, diabetes, and bronzing of the skin?

Front

Hemochromatosis

Back

Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma acuminatum?

Front

HPV serotypes 6 and 11

Back

Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?

Front

Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver, it results in hepatomegaly.

Back

Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?

Front

Lentigo maligna melanoma

Back

What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middle-aged males, resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?

Front

Ménétrier's disease

Back

What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?

Front

Osteosarcoma

Back

What is the term for tissue-based basophils?

Front

Mast cells

Back

What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?

Front

Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.

Back

What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities, red cell aplasia, and muscle weakness?

Front

Myasthenia gravis

Back

What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg cells stain positive for?

Front

CD15 and CD30

Back

Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?

Front

M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)

Back

What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?

Front

Female pseudohermaphrodite

Back

What pulmonary disease, most commonly associated with smoking, results in enlarged, overinflated lungs owing to the destruction of the alveolar walls with diminished elastic recoil?

Front

Emphysema

Back

What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?

Front

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, or IHSS)

Back

What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red spots on the retina?

Front

Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases

Back

A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain, fever, and a malar rash over the bridge of her nose and on her cheeks. This is a classic example of what autoimmune disease? What are three autoantibody tests you could order to make the diagnosis?

Front

SLE; ANA, anti-dsDNA and anti-Sm (anti-Smith)

Back

True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.

Front

False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps differentiate benign conditions from CML, which has low LAP levels.

Back

What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa, resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?

Front

Glanzmann syndrome

Back

What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose, sinuses, lungs, and kidneys; C-ANCA and autoantibodies against proteinase 3?

Front

Wegener granulomatosis

Back

Section 12

(50 cards)

What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses, flank pain, hematuria, HTN, and renal insufficiency?

Front

Adult polycystic kidney disease

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Thyroid colloid

Front

Eosin

Back

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope

Front

Hepatitis D

Back

What is flat, circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?

Front

Macule (e.g., a freckle)

Back

Based on the following information, is the renal transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or hyperacute? • Months to years after transplantation; gradual onset of HTN, oliguria, and azotemia; seen as intimal fibrosis of the blood vessels and interstitial lymphocytes

Front

Chronic rejection

Back

What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly, produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations, and stains positive for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)?

Front

Hairy cell leukemia

Back

What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?

Front

Hyperplasia

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm

Front

Eosin

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Bone macrophages

Front

Osteoclasts

Back

Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?

Front

Right-sided

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Connective tissue macrophages

Front

Histiocytes

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Lung macrophages

Front

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages

Back

What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia, tetany, and T-cell deficiency?

Front

DiGeorge syndrome

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Epidermal macrophages

Front

Langerhans cells

Back

True or false? All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer: early menses, late menopause, history of breast cancer, obesity, and multiparity.

Front

False. All except multiparity are risk factors for breast cancer. Nulliparity, increasing age, and family history in first-degree relative are also risk factors. Memorize this list!

Back

What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib, resulting in a defect in platelet adhesion?

Front

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Back

What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?

Front

Laminin

Back

For what disease are SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA diagnostic markers?

Front

Sjögren disease

Back

What condition is defined by both testicular and ovarian tissues in one individual?

Front

True hermaphrodism

Back

What is the term for pus in the pleural space?

Front

Empyema

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nucleoli

Front

Hematoxylin

Back

What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?

Front

Type I (makes sense, since they have a predisposition for fractures and type I collagen is associated with bones and tendons)

Back

What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?

Front

Yolk sac tumor

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Calcium

Front

Hematoxylin

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • RBCs

Front

Eosin

Back

What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?

Front

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Back

What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash, and lymphadenopathy?

Front

Kawasaki disease

Back

A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Pyloric stenosis

Back

How many months in how many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?

Front

3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years

Back

What is the term for a large, immature RBC that is spherical, blue, and without a nucleus?

Front

Reticulocyte

Back

Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?

Front

Burkitt lymphoma

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Brain macrophages

Front

Microglia

Back

Name the macrophage based on its location: • Liver macrophages

Front

Kupffer cells

Back

In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?

Front

Lower lobe

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Collagen

Front

Eosin

Back

What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?

Front

Eosinophils

Back

A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture), hypercalcemia, increased serum protein, Bence- Jones proteinuria, and monoclonal M-spike on serum electrophoresis. What is your diagnosis?

Front

Multiple myeloma

Back

What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?

Front

HPV serotypes 16, 18, 31, and 33

Back

What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin-platelet plug to stop bleeding?

Front

Hemostasis

Back

What disease has IgG autoantibodies, occurs in women more than men, and includes exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, nervousness, heart palpitations, and fatigue?

Front

Graves disease

Back

What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue and Henoch- Schönlein purpura?

Front

IgA nephropathy

Back

Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped RNA flavivirus

Front

Hepatitis C

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Bacteria

Front

Hematoxylin

Back

What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?

Front

Phototherapy

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin

Front

Eosin

Back

Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nuclei

Front

Hematoxylin

Back

Based on the following information, is the renal transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or hyperacute? • Immediately after transplantation; seen as a neutrophilic vasculitis with thrombosis

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Hyperacute rejection

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What commonly encountered overdose produces headache, tinnitus, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, confusion, vomiting, and tachypnea?

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ASA (salicylate)

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What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma, granulomas, and eosinophilia?

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Churg-Strauss syndrome

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Based on the following information, is the renal transplantation rejection acute, chronic, or hyperacute? • Weeks to months after transplantation; abrupt onset of oliguria and azotemia; seen as neutrophilic vasculitis and interstitial lymphocytes

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Acute rejection

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