Section 1
Preview this deck
At what age does a child learn to tie his/her shoes?
Front
| 5 | 0 | ||
| 4 | 0 | ||
| 3 | 0 | ||
| 2 | 0 | ||
| 1 | 0 |
Active users
0
All-time users
1
Favorites
0
Last updated
6 years ago
Date created
Mar 1, 2020
Cards (244)
Section 1
(50 cards)
At what age does a child learn to tie his/her shoes?
6 years
When does a childs conscience develop?
3-6 years (preschool)
Exposure or discussion of the clients case (even after death)
Exposure of a person
A person declared legally incompetent loses which freedoms?
Freedom to vote, drive, make contracts, sue or be sued, or hold a professional license
In order to be guilty of malpractice the following 4 things must be present:
Duty (obligation to maintain a nursing standard) Breach of duty (failure to maintain standard) Injury Proximate cause (connection between the breach of duty and the injury)
Mental or physical threat to touch or harm without permission
Assault
What age range is Initiative vs Guilt?
3-6 years (preschool)
When do infants teeth emerge?
Within the first 6 months
If a nurse believes a physicians prescription is wrong the nurse should
Notify physician and nursing supervisor, document it, and refuse to carry out the perscription
If the nurse is asked to perform a task for which he/she has not been prepared educationally or does not have the necessary experience the nurse should
Inform the physician, refuse the order, and arrange to have supervisor or other nurse perform it.
When can a nurse reduce a medication dose without a physicians prescription?
Never
What tasks can an LPN delegate to others?
Tasks that do not require nursing judgment (Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation)
Written statement that may cause harm to a persons reputation
Libel
A child demonstrating parallel play is assumed to be in what age range?
1-3 years
HIPAA stands for
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
Verbal statement that may cause harm to a persons reputation
Slander
At what age can a nurse expect the infants weight to be triple that of its birth weight?
1 year
At what age range is Ego Integrity vs Despair?
65 (Older adult)
What age range is Trust vs Mistrust?
0-12 months
At what age does the anterior fontanelle close?
18 months
At what age range does a child begin to lose its baby teeth?
6-12 years (school age)
What age range is Industry vs Inferiority?
6-12 years (school age)
At what age does a child begin to discard parental standards
6-12 years (school age)
Touching or harming without permission, with or without the intent to cause harm.
Battery
When does a childs teeth completely emerge?
3-6 years
Before the administration of medication or taking of blood the following must be performed every time
Identity must be verified through 2 different sources
What are the 4 colors used in the triage system, in order from most urgent to least?
Red -> Yellow -> Green -> Black
At 6 months of age what can the nurse expect the infants weight to be relative to its birth weight?
Double
A nurse checks frequently on a restraint patient observing for
proper circulation and pressure sores/injuries
What age range is Autonomy vs Shame and doubt?
1-3 years
What age range is Identity vs Inferiority (Role Confusion)?
12-18 (Adolescent)
Most states limit involuntary commitment to an institution to what time period?
90 days
A restraint order must be renewed within
24 hours
When does an infant begin to start using words?
9-12 months
What age range is Intimacy vs Isolation?
18-35 (young adult)
At what age range is Generativity vs Stagnation?
36-65 (Middle age)
If the nurse believes that a physicians prescription was made with poor judgment the nurse should
Question the order with the physician, document it, and carry out the prescription regardless.
In order for verbal consent to be valid what must be documented?
Full detail how and why the verbal consent was obtained in addition to 2 witnesses who are not directly related to the treatment or procedure
Performing an act that a reasonable and prudent person would not perform under similar conditions is defined as
Negligence
At what age does an infant begin to fear separation from its mother?
6-9 months
The 4 aspects of nursing judgment are
Assessment Diagnosis Planning Evaluation
What is the Anthrax incubation period?
Within 7 days (inhalation can take up to 42 days)
What are the S/S of Anthrax?
Cutaneous: Sores that develop into painless blisters, then ulcers with black centers. GI: severe stomach pain, bloody diarrhea, anorexia Inhalation: Cold and flue symptoms, muscle aches, chest discomfort, S.O.B.
Detaining a competent person against his or her will, confinement, or use of restraints without clients consent
False imprisonment
How is Anthrax spread?
Inhalation of spores or powder and eating undercooked meat of infected animals. CANNOT be spread from person to person
When does a child begin to develop a rational sense of self?
12-18 years (Adolescent)
What is the Tx for Anthrax?
60 day course of antibiotics
How is Pneumonic plague transmitted?
Spread by bacteria found in rodents and their fleas. Can also be transmitted via aerosol release or respiratory droplets from infected person
When does the posterior fontanel close?
Within the first 3 months
Clients may be restrained only under which circumstances?
In an emergency For a limited time For the limited purpose fo client safety or safety of others
Section 2
(50 cards)
What is the Tx for Inhalation Tularemia?
Antibiotics for 2 weeks
What is the intervention for a patient who suffers circulatory overload reaction from transfusion therapy?
Place the client in upright position with feet in dependent positions and administer diuretics, oxygen, and morphine
What is the incubation period for Botulism?
A few hours to a few days. Foodborne can take up to 2 weeks.
What are the S/S of Circulatory overload reaction to transfusion therapy?
Cough, dyspnea, pulmonary congestion, headache, hypertension
If a client is in cardiogenic shock, what might result from administration of volume expanding fluids?
Pulmonary edema
List 5 assessment findings found in most shock victims
Tachycardia Tachypnia Hypotension Cool clammy skin Decrease in urinary output
What are the S/S of Febrile nonhemolytic reaction?
Sudden chills and fever, headache, anxiety and muscle pain
What is the treatment for Febrile nonhemolytic reaction?
Antipyretics
What does ARDS stand for?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
How is radiation transmitted?
x-rays, nuclear bombs/disasters, the sun. Small quantities in air, water, and food cause internal exposure.
What is urticaria?
Hives
How is Inhalation Tularemia transmitted?
Insect bites (usually tick/deerfly), handling sick animals, contaminated food/water. Cannot be spread person to person
What does DIC stand for?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
What are the early signs of shock?
Agitation and restlessness resulting from cerebral hypoxia
What is the Tx for Smallpox?
None
What is the Tx for Pneumonic Plague?
Antibiotics for 7 days
What are the S/S of Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
Exhaustion, fever, muscle aches, bleeding under skin and body orifices (mouth,eyes, ears), shock, CNS malfunction, seizures, coma, renal failure.
What are the S/S for Inhalation Tularemia?
Skin ulcers, swollen/painful lymph gland, mouth sores, pneumonia.
What are the S/S of Smallpox?
High fever, head and body aches, rash that progresses to raised bumps and pus-filled blisters that crust and scab.
What are the S/S of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
Petechiae, purpura, hematoma's Bloody oozing from two or more unexpected sites Hemoptysis Hpotension, tachycardia, and mental status changes
What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
A coagulation disorder with paradoxical thombosis and hemorrhage.
What is the Incubation period for Inhalation Tularemia?
3-5 days but can take 2 weeks
How is Viral Hemorrhagic Fever transmitted?
Rodents/animal hosts as well as body fluids.
What is the incubation period for Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
2-21 days
What is the incubation period for Smallpox?
1-2 weeks
What are the nursing interventions for a patient with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
Provide gentle oral care with mouth swabs, turn frequently to eliminate pressure points, minimize number of BP's taken by cuff, minimize needle sticks and use smallest gauge needle possible.
What are the S/S of mild allergic reaction to transfusion therapy?
Flushing, itching, urticaria (hives)
What is the intervention for sepsis related to transfusion therapy?
Ensure a patent airway, obtain blood culture, administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor vitals.
What are the S/S of sepsis related to transfusion therapy?
Rapid onset of chills, high fever, vomiting, marked hypotension, and shock
What are the S/S of Acute Hemolytic Reaction?
Fever, low back pain, chills, tachcardia, hypotension progressing to acute renal failure, shock and cardiac arrest
What are the S/S of Anaphylactic reaction to transfusion therapy?
Anxiety, urticaria, wheezing, progressive cyanosis leading to shock and possible cardiac arrest.
What is the Tx for shock?
Rapid infusion of volume-expanding fluids and then Tx of underlying condition. Drugs are usually withheld until circulating volume normalizes.
What is the intervention if a patient on transfusion therapy presents with Acute Hemolytic Reaction?
Stop the transfusion, change tubing and continue saline IV. Treat for shock if present. Monitor hourly urine output.
What are the S/S of radiation exposure?
ARS (Acute radiation syndrome): N/V/Diarrhea, bone marrow depletion, weight loss, loss of appetite, infection, bleeding. May lead to cancer
What causes septic shock?
Release of endotoxins from bacteria that act on nerves in vascular space in periphery, causing vascular pooling, reduced venous return, decreased CO, and poor systemic perfusion.
What is hypercapnia?
Elevated CO2 levels in the body.
What is ARDS?
unexpected, catastrophic pulmonary complication occurring in a person with no previous pulmonary problems. High mortality rate (50%). You will see Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia.
What is the treatment for mild allergic reaction to transfusion therapy?
Antihistamines
What are the S/S of Botulism?
Diplopia, slurred speech, descending muscle weakness, dysphasia.
What is the incubation period for Pneumonic plague?
1-6 days
What is shock?
Widespread, serious reduction of tissue perfusion
What are the S/S for Pneumonic Plague?
Rapidly developing pneumonia, bloody or watery sputum, and abdominal pain. Without early Tx: shock, respiratory failure and death
How is Smallpox transmitted?
Contact with infected person, Aerosol release, body fluids, contaminated objects.
What is the Tx for Botulism?
Antitoxins to reduce severity. May require mechanical ventilation.
It is important to differentiate between hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock. How might the nurse determine the existence of cardiogenic shock?
History of MI with left ventricular failure or possible cardiomyopathy, with symptoms of pulmonary edema
What is the intervention for a patient who suffers an Anaphylactic reaction to transfusion therapy?
Initiate CPR
How is Botulism transmitted?
Eating toxic food or contact of an open wound with C. botulinum. Cannot be spread person to person
What is the normal central venous pressure for an adult?
4-10 cm of H20
What is cardiogenic shock?
Related to ischemia from MI, serious arrythmia, or CHF. If cardiogenic shock exists with the presence of pulmonary edema then position the client to REDUCE venous return (High fowlers w/legs down) to decrease venous return further to the left ventricle.
What is the Tx for Viral Hemorrhagic Fever?
No cure. Supportive therapy only.
Section 3
(50 cards)
What is the lab value range for magnesemia?
1.5-2.5
List four measurable criteria that are the major expected outcomes of a shock crisis
BP mean of 80-90 mmHg PO2 more than 50 mmHg CVP above 6 cm of H2O Urine output at least 30 mL/hr
When an IV is discontinued, pressure should be applied to the site for
1-3 minutes
What type of solution is 0.9% normal saline?
Isotonic
What type of solution is Lactated Ringers?
Isotonic
What is the Tx for hypernatremia?
restrict sodium in diet and increase water intake
How often should IV tubing and dressing be changed?
Every 72 hours
What is the lab value range for Calcium?
8.5-10.5
What type of solution is D5W
Isotonic
What causes Cardiopulmonary arrest?
Miocardial Infarction
What causes hyperkalemia?
Oliguria, acidosis, renal failure, addison disease
What type of solution is 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline?
Hypertonic
What are the S/S of hypercalcemia?
Constipation, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia, dysrhythmia
What do hypertonic solutions do?
Pull fluid out of the intracellular space
What are the S/S of hyperkalemia?
Muscle weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, tall T waves
What are the S/S of hyponatremia?
Anorexia, N/V, weakness, lethargy, confusion, seizures.
What causes hypercalcemia?
Hyperparathyroidism, prolonged immobilization, excess calcium suppliments
What is the Tx for hyperkalemia?
Kayexalate, glucose, and insulin
What is the lab value range for potassium?
3.5-5
What are the S/S of hypokalemia?
Fatigue, anorexia, N/V, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, paresthesia, flat T waves
What are the S/S of hypernatremia?
Thirst, hyperpyrexia, dry mouth, irritability, seizures.
What are the steps to preforming CPR?
Position person in supine position, shake and call out "Are you okay?" If no response call 911 Establish airway be extending neck with the head/tilt, chin/lift, clear airway of foreign body if visible Look, listen, and feel for breathing If no breathing ventilate 2 breaths, assess circulation and if no pulse begin compressions
What causes hypokalemia?
Diuretics, hyperaldosteronism, bulimia, cushing syndrom
What are the S/S of a patient immediately preceding an MI?
Chest pain at rest or with moderate activity Described as crushing, pressing or heavy pain (elephant sitting on chest) Tends to increase in intensity over a few minutes May be substernal or more diffused - radiating to shoulder, neck/jaw, or back.
Administration sets should be changed every
72 hours
What causes hypernatremia?
Water deprivation, renal failure, cushings syndrome, diabetes insipidus
What are the S/S of hypomagnesemia?
Anorexia, distention, depression, disorientation
What causes hypophosphatemia?
Refeeding after starvation, alcohol withdrawl, DKA
What is the Tx for Hyponatremia?
Restrict fluids
What causes hyponatremia?
Diuretics GI fluid loss D5W or hypotonic IV fluids Diaphoresis
What drug is used in the treatment of DIC?
Heparin
What type of solution is 2.5% dextrose in 0.45% saline?
hypotonic
What are the S/S of hypocalcemia?
numbness, tingling of extremities, Trousseau sign, Chvostek sign
What is the Tx for hypocalcemia?
Administer calcium suppliments
What causes hypocalcemia?
Renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, alkalosis
What is the Tx for hypokalemia?
Potassium supplements (potassium IV should NEVER be given as a bolus)
What is the established minimum renal output per hour?
30 ml/hr
What are isotonic solutions used for?
To expand the intravascular space
What are hypotonic solutions used for?
To move fluid from ECF to ICF
What is the lab value range for sodium?
135-145
What is the lab value range for phosphorus?
2-4.5 mEq/L
What are the S/S of hypermagnesemia?
Flushing, hypotension, depressed respirations, bradycardia, hypoactive reflexes
What causes hyperphosphatemia?
Renal failure
What causes hypomagnesemia?
Alcoholism, DKA, diuretics
What are the S/S of hypophosphatemia?
Paresthesias, muscle weakness/pain, respiratory failure
What causes hypermagnesemia?
Renal failure, adrenal insufficiency
What type of solution is 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline?
Hypertonic
What type of solution is 5% dextrose in lactated ringers?
Hypertonic
What type of solution is 0.45% normal saline?
hypotonic
What is the treatment for hypercalcemia?
Loop diuretics, calcitonin, avoid calcium based antacids
Section 4
(50 cards)
The postoperative complication of Thrombophlebitis usually manifests in what time frame?
6-14 days post op
If a mother has HIV and is taking Zidovudine (retrovier) what is the % that the child has of being infected with HIV as well?
4-8%
What is an LPN's primary focus for the postanesthesia phase of patient care?
Pain management, postanesthesia precautions
What are the S/S of Perirectal Mucocutaneous herpes simplex viral infections?
Severe pain, bleeding, rectal discharge, ulceration in the rectal area
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of pulmonary problems (atelectasis, pneumonia, embolus)
Assist client to turn, cough, deep breathe q2 hours, keep client hydrated, early ambulation and early incentive spirometer.
Primary IV solution bags should not hang for over (what period of time?)
24 hours
What are the S/S of Cryptosporidiosis?
Severe, watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea and malaise
On an ECG, what does the PR interval represent?
The time required for the impose to travel through the atria (SA node), through the A-V node, to the Purkinje fibers.
On an ECG, what does the U wave represent?
Not always present but if seen may indicate hypokalemia
What are the S/S of Kaposi's sarcoma?
Purple-blue lesions on skin (usually arms/legs)
The postoperative complication of decreased GI peristalsis usually manifests in what time frame?
2-4 days post op
What are the S/S of cryptococcal meningitis?
Headache, changes in level of consciousness, stiff neck, diplopia, n/v
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of wound-healing problems?
Splint incision when client coughs, monitor for signs of infection/malnutrition/dehydration, high-protein diet and keep wound clean and dry.
What are the S/S of HIV Encephalopathy?
Memory loss, impaired concentration, apathy/depression, psychomotor slowing (most prominent symptom), incontinence.
A normal pH ratio is x parts carbonic acid to x parts bicarbonate
1 carbonic acid : 20 bicarb
What is the normal range for bicarbonate (HCO3)?
22-26
What are the S/S of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
Fever, dry cough, dyspnea at rest, chills
The postoperative complication of urinary retention usually manifests in what time frame?
8-12 hours postop
On an ECG, what does the QT interval represent?
The time required to completely depolarize and repolarize ventricles
What are the S/S of HIV?
Loss of appetite / extreme weight loss. Unexplained fever lasting longer than a week. Night sweats. White spots on mouth and throat. Painless purple-blue lesions on the skin.
What are the two main fluid status's that provide increased risk factors for surgery?
Dehydration and hypovolemia.
AIDS targets which cell (specifically) to reproduce?
CD4 T-cell
Don't start an IV on a lower extremity
This isn't a question, don't do it.
What are the S/S of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis?
Impaired vision in one or both eyes. Can lead to blindness
The postoperative complication of wound-healing problems usually manifests in what time frame?
5-6 days post op
If a mother has HIV what is the % that the child has of being infected with HIV as well?
30-50%
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of UTI's?
Emptying of bladder q4-q6 hours, avoid catheters if possible.
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of decreased GI peristalsis?
NG tubing to decompress GI tract, encourage early ambulation, limit use of narcotic analgesics that decrease peristalsis.
On an ECG, what does the R - R interval represent?
The regularity of the heart rhythm. Measured from one QRS to the next.
What test is used to confirm HIV?
Western Blot test
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of thrombophlebitis?
Leg exercises q2 hrs while in bed, early ambulation, apply antiembolus (TED) stockings, low dose heparin may be used prophylactically.
To help prevent phlebitis, a cannulation site should never be placed over
a joint
On an ECG, what does the P wave represent?
atrial systole; depolarization of the atrial muscle.
How long does it take for symptoms of HIV to manifest after being exposed?
3 weeks but then person becomes asymptomatic.
What is an LPN's primary focus for the operative phase of patient care?
Assessment, management of the operative suite.
What is an LPN's primary focus for preoperative care of a patient?
Education about postoperative care, NPO, and assistance with meeting family needs.
What are the S/S of Disseminated cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
Malaise, fever, pancytopenia, weight loss, positive cultures from blood, urine or throat.
What nursing interventions are performed for a post op client to reduce the risk of urinary retention?
Monitor hydration status, offer bedpan or assistance to commode, catheterize as needed per prescription
What is the drug given to HIV positive mothers that reduces the neonates chance of acquiring HIV?
Zidovudine (Retrovier)
What is the normal range of carbon dioxide (pCO2)?
35-45 mmHg
The standard ECG contains how many leads?
12
On an ECG, what does the ST segment represent?
early ventricular repolarization
What is an LPN's primary focus for the postoperative phase of patient care?
Prevent and assess for complications, pain management, dietary restrictions, activity.
The postoperative complication of pulmonary problems (atelectasis, pneumonia, embolus) usually manifests in what time frame?
1-2 days post op
What are the S/S of Candidiasis of the oral cavity?
Thick-white exudate, unusual taste to food, oral ulcers
What are the S/S of cytomegalovirus (CMV) colitis?
Diarrhea, weight loss, malabsorption of nutrients
The postoperative complication of UTI's generally manifests in what time frame?
5-8 days post op
On an ECG, what does the T wave represent?
ventricular diastole' repolarization of the ventricular muscle
On an ECG, what does the QRS complex represent?
ventricular systole' depolarization of the ventricular muscle
What are the S/S of lymphomas of the CNS?
Change in mental status, apathy, psychomotor slowing, seizures
Section 5
(44 cards)